The term used to describe a situation whereby the fetal lie keeps varying after 36 gestational weeks is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unstable lie. After 36 weeks of gestation, the fetal lie should typically be consistent. An unstable lie refers to a situation where the fetal lie keeps changing position, indicating a potential complication. This can lead to difficulties during labor and delivery. Summary: B: Compound lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is in an abnormal position, such as breech or transverse, alongside another part of the body presenting first. C: Multiple lie - Not a recognized medical term. D: Transverse lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is positioned horizontally across the uterus, which can complicate delivery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Footling. When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, it indicates a footling presentation where the foot is presenting first. This is a type of breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet come out first. A transverse presentation would mean the baby is lying sideways, and an unstable lie refers to the baby's position not being fixed. Therefore, the presence of a hand/foot alongside the presenting part specifically indicates a footling presentation, making choice A the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves breathing pure oxygen in a pressurized room, which can help reduce gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract by increasing oxygen delivery to tissues. This promotes healing and reduces symptoms associated with pneumatosis. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen therapy in treating pneumatosis, as it does not provide the same level of pressurized oxygen delivery to tissues. C: Surgical resection may be considered in severe cases of pneumatosis where conservative treatments have failed, but it is not the first-line treatment option. D: Treatment of underlying disease is important in managing pneumatosis, but it may not directly address the gas cysts themselves. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy specifically targets the gas cysts to alleviate symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Physiologic stress ulcers are often associated with systemic stress response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Fever is an early sign of stress-related ulcers before other symptoms like epigastric pain or hemorrhage manifest. Change in mental status is more indicative of neurological issues rather than stress ulcers. Epigastric pain typically occurs after the ulcer has progressed, and hemorrhage is a severe complication of untreated stress ulcers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increases risk of gestational diabetes. Maternal obesity can lead to insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of developing gestational diabetes during pregnancy. This condition can have negative effects on both the mother and the baby. B: Miscarriage is not directly linked to maternal obesity but can be influenced by other factors. C: Maternal obesity is not a direct cause of anemia during pregnancy. Anemia is usually related to iron deficiency or other factors. D: Maternal obesity is actually associated with an increased risk of preterm labor, not a reduced chance. This is due to various complications such as hypertension and preeclampsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cyclosporine. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used post-bone marrow transplant to prevent graft-versus-host disease. It works by inhibiting T-cell activation and proliferation, reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin (A) is used for passive immunization, not prevention of graft-versus-host reaction. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections post-transplant, not graft-versus-host disease. Systemic corticosteroids (D) may be used to treat graft-versus-host disease but are not the first-line prophylactic medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because living wills typically are not always honored for cognitively impaired patients. Step-by-step rationale: A) Incorrect - A court can declare a patient incompetent if they are unable to make decisions. B) Incorrect - Impaired cognition can indeed make a person incompetent. D) Incorrect - A patient must have the capacity to understand information and make decisions to give informed consent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): At 36 weeks, the baby has enough room to move, reducing risks of complications during external cephalic version. Earlier intervention also allows for possible repeat attempts if needed. This timing aligns with guidelines for optimal success rates. Summary of other choices: B: 38 weeks may be too late as the baby may have less space to turn. C: 42 weeks is post-term and poses risks for both the baby and the mother. D: 40 weeks is close to full term and may not allow for adequate time for successful version.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions are often mistaken for postpartum eclampsia due to similar symptoms such as seizures and altered mental status. Postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, usually within 48 hours, while antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery. Presence of stroke and pre-existing epilepsy are not directly related to convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism. Thus, D is the correct choice as it closely resembles the presentation of convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism.