ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The term persistent occipito-posterior position indicates that the occiput
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Persistent occipito-posterior position means the occiput fails to rotate forward.
Question 2 of 5
The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typically, excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy whenever feasible because it provides a more accurate representation of the tumor since the entire mass is removed. This benefits both the patient (by potentially preventing the need for a second procedure) and the medical team (by ensuring a more comprehensive evaluation of the tumor). It is important to remove the entire lesion during excisional biopsy to make an accurate diagnosis. Incisional biopsy, on the other hand, involves taking only a portion of the tumor for examination, which may lead to potential sampling error and inadequate representation of the tumor.
Question 3 of 5
Laryngeal stridor as a congenital abnormality is caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor is caused by laryngomalacia, where the soft tissue above the vocal cords collapses inward.
Question 4 of 5
Mr. Novello is an 81-year old male patient who presents with crampy abdominal pain in the hypogastrum and a vague history as to his last normal bowel movement. Physical examination reveals distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. The patient says he has never has this kind of problem before and denies any history of abdominal surgery. Abdominal radiographs reveal a frame pattern of colonic distention. The AGACNP considers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate step for the AGACNP to take in this scenario is to decompress the colon with a rectal tube. The patient's presentation, including crampy abdominal pain, distention, lack of bowel movements, and a frame pattern of colonic distention on radiographs, are suggestive of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. This condition is characterized by colonic distention without a mechanical obstruction, which can lead to significant complications such as perforation.
Question 5 of 5
A Para 3+0 client who was scheduled for the fourth cesarean section comes in active labor. The MAIN complication of concern in this case is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main concern for a woman with multiple previous cesarean sections is uterine rupture.