ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
The student nurse is studying for a pharmacology exam and notices that many of the adrenergic blocking antagonists drugs studied in class have what suffix?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The suffix -lol is seen in many of the drug names for adrenergic blocking antagonists. The suffix -aine would indicate a topical anesthetic, whereas -azole indicates an antifungal, and the suffix -triptan relates to the triptans. The nurse should be familiar with drug name suffixes to aid in identifying drug classes and their therapeutic uses.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (Flexeril) for the treatment of muscle spasm. Which of the following medical conditions is contraindicated with the use of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine, a muscle relaxant, has anticholinergic effects that can exacerbate angle-closure glaucoma by increasing intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in patients with this condition. While it may cause dry mouth or urinary retention, it is not specifically contraindicated in diabetes, emphysema, or urinary tract infections. The anticholinergic properties of cyclobenzaprine make it unsuitable for patients with angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 3 of 5
A client who is receiving edrophonium chloride suddenly is complaining of abdominal cramps and the nurse observes the client is experiencing increased perspiration and salivation. The nurse makes sure the availability of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal cramps, increased perspiration, and salivation suggest cholinergic excess, which can occur with edrophonium chloride. Atropine sulfate is the antidote for cholinergic toxicity and should be readily available to counteract these effects. Levodopa, methylphenidate, and carbamazepine are not used to treat cholinergic excess. Therefore, atropine is the correct medication to have on hand.
Question 4 of 5
A 28-year-old woman is admitted with suspected urinary sepsis (temperature 40.2°C, BP 84/50, pulse 128). She had a massive haemorrhage following the birth of her only child when she was aged 24; since then she has had no periods. Her partner says that she has been progressively listless and depressed for at least two years. There is left loin tenderness and she has no pubic or axillary hair. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sepsis (fever, hypotension) with post-partum hemorrhage history, amenorrhea, fatigue, and hair loss suggest Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary necrosis) causing adrenal insufficiency. Oral amoxicillin is inadequate for septic shock. IV hydrocortisone treats acute adrenal crisis, stabilizing BP and stress response, most appropriate here alongside antibiotics. Pelvic exam doesn't address urgency. Gonadotrophins or triiodothyronine target secondary issues, not immediate crisis. Hydrocortisone's rapid action is life-saving, addressing cortisol deficiency in this emergency.
Question 5 of 5
With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone is intermediate-acting (12-36 hours), not long-acting like dexamethasone, so that's false. Methotrexate benefits some prednisone-dependent asthmatics, not all studies, making that false. Cyclosporin's toxicity (e.g., nephrotoxicity) limits its anti-asthmatic use, a true statement, despite immunosuppressive potential. Nifedipine has minimal effect on exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, unlike inhaled CCBs, so that's false. Macrolides show some benefit in asthma. Cyclosporin's limitation reflects its risk-benefit profile, restricting its practical use.