ATI RN
Leadership Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The staff of a medical-surgical unit is in disagreement about holiday scheduling. The nurse manager knows that this is what type of conflict?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intragroup conflict. In this scenario, the conflict is happening within the staff of the medical-surgical unit, making it an intragroup conflict. The staff members belong to the same group or team, and the conflict arises within this specific group. This type of conflict typically involves disagreements, tension, or differences of opinion among members of the same group. Summary: B: Intergroup conflict involves conflicts between different groups or teams, not within the same group. C: Interpersonal conflict refers to conflicts between individuals, not within a group. D: Intrapersonal conflict involves internal conflicts within an individual, not within a group.
Question 2 of 9
A ___________ manager supervises a number of first-level managers, usually within related specialties.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: middle-level manager. Middle-level managers oversee first-level managers and coordinate activities within related specialties. They bridge the gap between top-level executives and front-line employees, ensuring organizational goals are met. A: Self-directed managers work autonomously, not supervising other managers. B: First-level managers supervise front-line employees, not other managers. D: Self-motivated is a personal trait and not a managerial level.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse preceptor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mentor and educator for new nurses. A nurse preceptor guides and supports new nurses in their transition to the workplace, providing mentorship and educational resources. This role involves teaching clinical skills, sharing knowledge, and offering emotional support. A: Supervisor of all nursing staff - Incorrect. A nurse preceptor focuses on mentoring new nurses, not supervising all nursing staff. C: Director of nursing services - Incorrect. The director of nursing services is a higher-level administrative position responsible for overseeing the nursing department. D: Coordinator of patient care - Incorrect. While a nurse preceptor may assist in coordinating patient care for their assigned nurse, their primary role is to mentor and educate new nurses.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is discussing the responsibility of caring for clients with clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because having family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting a client with C. difficile infection helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others. This infection is highly contagious and can be transmitted through contact with contaminated surfaces or feces. By wearing protective gear, family members can reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others. Choice B is incorrect because while cleaning contaminated surfaces with a bleach solution is important, it is not directly related to family members' responsibilities. Choice C is incorrect because alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not effective against C. difficile spores, so proper handwashing with soap and water is recommended. Choice D is incorrect because assigning the client to a room with a private bathroom is not directly related to the responsibility of family members visiting the client.
Question 5 of 9
In the traditional rating scale, what is the time period typically used for evaluation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Twelve months. In traditional rating scales, evaluations are typically conducted over a period of twelve months to allow for a comprehensive assessment of an individual's performance over an extended period. This timeframe allows for a more accurate reflection of the individual's overall performance, taking into account various factors and performance trends throughout the year. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Six months: Six months is a relatively shorter timeframe compared to the traditional annual evaluation period. It may not provide a comprehensive view of the individual's performance over a longer period. - C: Three months: Three months is too short of a timeframe to evaluate performance comprehensively. It may not capture long-term performance trends and variations. - D: One month: One month is too brief to assess performance effectively. It may not account for fluctuations in performance or provide a holistic view of the individual's capabilities over time.
Question 6 of 9
When communicating with a client who has a complaint, what principle is important to keep in mind?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to treat clients and families with respect, practicing open and honest communication. This fosters trust, helps address concerns, and improves client satisfaction. Choice A is incorrect as involving supervisors may not always be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the physician may not always be the cause of the problem. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding discussion can lead to unresolved issues. In summary, choice D promotes a positive and effective client-provider relationship, while the other choices do not address the core principles of effective communication and client-centered care.
Question 7 of 9
When addressing a policy violation, what is one of the initial steps to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Determine whether the employee is aware of the policy. This is the initial step to ensure fairness and due process. By confirming the employee's knowledge of the policy, you can address any potential misunderstandings or gaps in communication. Terminating the employee (A) without first verifying their awareness would be hasty and unfair. Confronting the employee (B) may be necessary later, but not as an initial step. Disciplining the employee immediately (C) without understanding their knowledge of the policy could lead to unnecessary conflicts and legal implications. Thus, D is the most appropriate initial step in addressing a policy violation.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted to a medical-surgical unit after six hours in the emergency room. He requests that his AM care be delayed to allow him to rest. The nurse complies with his request. This is an example of which type of management philosophy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total quality management. This approach focuses on meeting customer needs and continuous improvement. By allowing the client to rest, the nurse is prioritizing the client's comfort and well-being, which aligns with the principles of total quality management. Continuous quality improvement (A) focuses on incremental improvements, Six Sigma (C) aims to reduce defects, and Quality management (D) is a broader term that encompasses various quality approaches.
Question 9 of 9
What quality is observed among individuals who strive to find the best way to do their job?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Motivation. Individuals who strive to find the best way to do their job are motivated to continuously improve and excel in their work. Motivation drives them to seek out better methods, innovate, and push boundaries for greater efficiency and effectiveness. Punctuality (A) relates more to timeliness, strictness (B) implies rigidity rather than adaptability, and honesty (C) is important but not directly related to the drive for improvement. Overall, motivation is the key factor that propels individuals to constantly seek the best ways to perform their job.