ATI RN
Cardiovascular Inflammation Drug Questions
Question 1 of 5
The spouse of a man being treated with sertraline (Zoloft) calls to report that he had a grand mal seizure. Prior to the seizure, he had seemed confused and his forehead felt hot. The man does not have a seizure-disorder history. Which action should the nurse direct the spouse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the man experienced a grand mal seizure, confusion, and a hot forehead, which are signs of a potential medical emergency. Calling 911 for immediate transportation to the hospital is crucial to ensure prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Seizures can be life-threatening, and it is essential to have medical professionals assess the situation. Choice A is incorrect because waiting to see if there are more seizures can delay necessary medical intervention. Choice C is incorrect as holding the medication and encouraging fluids does not address the immediate medical emergency of a seizure. Choice D is incorrect because administering an antipyretic drug for fever does not address the seizure itself or the underlying cause.
Question 2 of 5
A drug blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to 1 receptors. The patient may experience:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: orthostatic hypotension. Blocking norepinephrine from binding to alpha-1 receptors would result in decreased vasoconstriction, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing (orthostatic hypotension). A is incorrect as hypertensive crisis would not occur due to reduced norepinephrine action. C is incorrect as appetite disturbance is not a typical effect of alpha-1 receptor blockage. D is incorrect as an increase in psychotic symptoms is not directly related to norepinephrine-α1 receptor interaction.
Question 3 of 5
The physician reviewing a patient’s medical record states, “This patient’s behavior leads me to wonder if a limbic system problem might be involved.” If this is true, the nurse would be most likely to observe the patient having difficulty:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The limbic system is responsible for regulating emotions, memory, and arousal. Dysfunction in the limbic system can impact coordination of stress-related responses and complex movements. This can manifest as difficulty in responding effectively to stressors or in performing coordinated movements. Therefore, the correct answer is D. A: Regulating emotional behavior is more associated with the amygdala and prefrontal cortex. B: Abstract reasoning and higher-order thinking are primarily controlled by the prefrontal cortex. C: Critical decision making, weighing alternatives, and planning involve the prefrontal cortex and other areas of the brain, not specifically the limbic system.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is undergoing abdominal surgery and has been anesthetized for 3 hours. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to central nervous system depression produced by general anesthesia. During abdominal surgery under general anesthesia, the patient's central nervous system is depressed, leading to impaired gas exchange. This is due to decreased respiratory drive and potential airway obstruction. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the patient's respiratory rate, depth, and oxygen saturation to prevent respiratory complications. Choice A (Anxiety related to the use of an anesthetic) is incorrect because anxiety is not a priority nursing diagnosis during surgery under anesthesia. Choice B (Risk for injury related to increased sensorium from general anesthesia) is incorrect as general anesthesia actually decreases sensorium, reducing the risk for injury. Choice C (Decreased cardiac output related to systemic effects of local anesthesia) is incorrect as local anesthesia does not typically affect cardiac output during abdominal surgery under general anesthesia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient who has been taking antihypertensive drugs for a few months complains of having a persistent dry cough. The nurse knows that this cough is an adverse effect of which class of antihypertensive drugs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. ACE inhibitors can cause a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a substance that causes coughing. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Beta blockers are not known to cause persistent dry cough. C: Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause cough compared to ACE inhibitors. D: Calcium channel blockers are not associated with causing a dry cough.