ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The specific treatment of the Clostridium difficile - associated post antibiotic diarrhea is based on all the strategies EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Early application of gentamicin is not recommended as a specific treatment for C. difficile-associated post antibiotic diarrhea because it does not have efficacy against C. difficile. B: Metronidazole is recommended as first-line treatment for mild to moderate C. difficile infection. C: Stopping antibiotic treatment and observing the clinical response for 48 hours is not a recommended strategy as prompt treatment is crucial in C. difficile infection. D: Vancomycin per os is an appropriate treatment for severe C. difficile infection. In summary, A is incorrect because gentamicin is not effective against C. difficile, while B, C, and D are potential treatment strategies based on severity of the infection.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because penicillins and cephalosporins inactivate transpeptidase activity of penicillin binding proteins, leading to disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis. This mechanism makes them bactericidal, not bacteriostatic (choice B). Choice C is incorrect as penicillins and cephalosporins target cell wall synthesis, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Choice D is incorrect as option A is the correct statement.
Question 3 of 9
The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: rotaviruses. Rotaviruses are the most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children due to their highly contagious nature and ability to spread easily in childcare settings. They are known to cause severe diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration in young children. Noroviruses (A), adenoviruses (B), and caliciviruses (D) can also cause diarrhea, but rotaviruses are specifically known for their prevalence and severity in the pediatric population. This is why C is the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice is A: Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells. The Besredka desensitization method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to induce tolerance and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the allergen to IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, which prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that trigger allergic reactions. This desensitization process helps the immune system become less reactive to the allergen over time. Incorrect choices: B: Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators - This choice does not reflect the mechanism of the Besredka desensitization method, which involves binding to IgE on mast cells. C: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance - While this may sound plausible, the Besredka method specifically targets the IgE-mast cell interaction. D: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis - While IgG antibodies may play a role in desensitization, the
Question 5 of 9
How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.
Question 6 of 9
A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (25°C) because dimorphic fungi typically grow as molds at lower temperatures. At 25°C, the fungus is likely in its mold phase, which is the preferred temperature range for mold growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 15°C and 20°C are too low for optimal mold growth, and 37°C is too high as it typically favors the yeast phase of dimorphic fungi. Therefore, the preferred temperature for mold growth of a dimorphic fungus is 25°C.
Question 7 of 9
Epstein-Barr virus (HHV4) is associated with any of the following diseases:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis due to primary infection. 2. Certain types of cancer, such as Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, are associated with Epstein-Barr virus through oncogenic mechanisms. 3. Chickenpox and shingles are caused by varicella-zoster virus (HHV3). 4. Roseola infantum is caused by human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). Summary: Choice A is correct as Epstein-Barr virus is linked to infectious mononucleosis and specific cancers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are caused by different herpesviruses.
Question 8 of 9
All are non-fermentative gram-negative rods except
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Klebsiella pneumoniae. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a fermentative gram-negative rod, which means it can ferment sugars. In contrast, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia are non-fermentative gram-negative rods. These organisms do not ferment sugars for energy production. Therefore, Klebsiella pneumoniae is the only fermentative organism among the choices, making it the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
Etiological factors for the infectious diseases are often microorganisms with various ultrastructure. Which of the following microorganism groups relates to the eukaryotes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protozoa. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms, meaning they have a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotes have complex cellular structures that include a nucleus, mitochondria, and other organelles. Therefore, protozoa are eukaryotes. Viruses (B) are not considered cells and lack cellular structures. Viroids (C) are smaller infectious agents that consist of only RNA, lacking the cellular structure of eukaryotes. Prions (D) are infectious proteins and do not possess cellular structures like eukaryotes. So, protozoa are the only choice that relates to eukaryotes due to their cellular structure.