The son of a dying patient tells the nurse, 'Mother doesn’t respond anymore when I visit. I don’t think she knows that I am here.' Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The son of a dying patient tells the nurse, 'Mother doesn’t respond anymore when I visit. I don’t think she knows that I am here.' Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because withdrawal is a common psychological response in the dying process. The nurse should explain to the son that his mother's lack of response may be her way of preparing to leave life. This response validates the son's concerns while providing reassurance. Choice A is incorrect because cutting back visits may not address the underlying issue of the mother's withdrawal. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the mother may not be beneficial or appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because not all patients experience a lack of awareness at the end of life, and assuming so may not be helpful in this context.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intra-aortic balloon pump in place. Which action should be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measure the patient’s urinary output every hour. This is crucial because monitoring urinary output is essential in assessing the patient’s renal function and the effectiveness of the intra-aortic balloon pump in improving cardiac output. Hourly measurement helps in early detection of any changes that may indicate complications. A: Positioning the patient supine at all times is not necessary and can lead to complications. B: Avoiding the use of anticoagulant medications is not appropriate as they are often necessary to prevent clot formation around the balloon pump. D: Providing a massive range of motion for all extremities is not recommended for a patient with an intra-aortic balloon pump as it can dislodge the device or cause harm.

Question 3 of 9

The family of your critically ill patient tells you that they h ave not spoken with the physician in over 24 hours and they have some questions that they w ant clarified. During morning rounds, you convey this concern to the attending intensivist and arrange for her to meet with the family at 4:00 PM in the conference room. Which com petency of critical care nursing does this represent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaboration with patients, families, and team members. By addressing the family's concern about lack of communication with the physician and arranging a meeting between the intensivist and the family, the nurse is demonstrating collaboration skills in facilitating communication and ensuring the family's questions are addressed. This competency emphasizes the importance of working together with patients, families, and the healthcare team to provide optimal care. Incorrect choices: A: Advocacy and moral agency in solving ethical issues - While advocacy is important in nursing, in this scenario, the focus is on communication and collaboration rather than ethical issues. B: Clinical judgment and clinical reasoning skills - Although these skills are crucial in critical care nursing, the situation described does not primarily involve clinical judgment but rather communication and collaboration. D: Facilitation of learning for patients, families, and team members - While patient education is important, the main focus of the scenario is on addressing the family's concerns and facilitating communication, rather than educational aspects.

Question 4 of 9

A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. Which organ function is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver. The nurse should monitor liver function in this client because acetaminophen is primarily metabolized in the liver. Alcohol abuse can also contribute to liver damage, increasing the risk of liver toxicity from acetaminophen. Monitoring liver function tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels can help detect any liver damage early. Choice A, cardiorespiratory, is not directly related to acetaminophen or alcohol abuse in this scenario. Choice C, sensory, is not relevant to monitoring organ function in this context. Choice D, kidney, is not the primary concern because acetaminophen is mainly metabolized in the liver, and kidney function is not typically affected by acetaminophen use.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. T he primary care providers are considering performing a tracheostomy because the patienatb iirsb .hcoamv/itensgt difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. Related to tracheostomy, the nurse understands which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procedures performed in the operating room are associated with fewer complications. This is because performing a tracheostomy in the operating room allows for better control of the environment, equipment, and expertise of the surgical team. In this setting, the risk of complications such as bleeding, infection, and injury to surrounding structures is minimized. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation - This statement is not universally true and depends on individual patient factors. Timing of tracheostomy should be based on the patient's clinical condition and not a set timeline. B: Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the bedside by the respiratory therapist - While percutaneous tracheostomy can be performed at the bedside, it is typically done by a trained physician or surgeon due to the potential risks and complications involved. D: The greatest risk after a per

Question 6 of 9

When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87°F (30.6°C), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When rewarming a hypothermic patient, the goal is to gradually increase their core temperature. A core temperature of 94°F (34.4°C) is still below the normal range, but it indicates that the rewarming process is working. Shivering (A) is a normal response to rewarming. A decrease in blood pressure (B) may be expected due to peripheral vasodilation during rewarming. Developing atrial fibrillation (C) may be a concern but does not necessarily indicate that rewarming should be discontinued. Therefore, choice D is correct as it signifies progress in the rewarming process.

Question 7 of 9

Family assessment can be challenging and each nurse may obtain additional information regarding family structure and dynamics. What is the best way to share this information from shift to shift?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because developing a standardized reporting form for family information that is incorporated into the patient's medical record ensures consistency and accuracy in sharing vital details about family structure and dynamics from shift to shift. This method allows all healthcare providers to access the information easily and update it as needed, promoting continuity of care and comprehensive understanding of the family's needs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A: Creating an informal family information sheet may lead to inconsistencies in the information shared among healthcare providers and may not be updated regularly. C: Requiring only the charge nurse to have detailed information may result in information silos and lack of accessibility for all team members. D: Discussing family dynamics as part of the change-of-shift report may lead to important details being missed or forgotten, compromising the quality of care provided.

Question 8 of 9

What are the diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study. ARDS diagnosis requires bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, indicative of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Choice B, decreased cardiac output, is not a diagnostic criterion for ARDS. Choice C, PaO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 200, is a key diagnostic criteria for ARDS, indicating severe hypoxemia. Choice D, PAOP of more than 18 mm Hg, is used to differentiate between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema, but it is not a direct diagnostic criterion for ARDS.

Question 9 of 9

Ideally, by whom and when should an advance directive be developed?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: 1. Advance directives should be made by the patient to reflect their wishes. 2. Developing it before illness ensures clarity and avoids confusion. 3. Patients may not be able to make informed decisions in critical conditions. 4. Family or surrogates may not accurately represent the patient's wishes. Summary: A - Family in critical condition may not know the patient's wishes. B - Hospital admission process may be too late for clear decision-making. D - Healthcare surrogate may not fully understand the patient's preferences.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days