The school nurse is counseling a group of adolescent girls. What does the nurse explain about sperm ejaculated near the cervix?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and maternal monitoring during labor, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to have a deep understanding of reproductive physiology to provide accurate and comprehensive patient education. In this scenario, the correct answer is B) They survive up to 5 days and can cause pregnancy. Explanation of why B is correct: Sperm ejaculated near the cervix can survive in the female reproductive tract for up to 5 days, waiting for an egg to fertilize. This information is important for adolescent girls to understand the potential risk of pregnancy even if intercourse occurred days before ovulation. Explanation of why others are wrong: A) They are destroyed by the acidic pH of the vagina: While the vagina is slightly acidic, sperm can survive in this environment for a certain period, especially with the protective cervical mucus. C) They lose their motility in about 12 hours after intercourse: Sperm can remain motile for several days after ejaculation, allowing them to travel through the female reproductive tract to reach the egg. D) They are usually pushed out of the vagina by the muscular action of the vaginal wall: The muscular action of the vaginal wall does not typically expel sperm from the vagina, as sperm can travel through the cervix into the uterus and fallopian tubes. Educational Context: Understanding the lifespan of sperm is essential for individuals engaging in sexual activity to make informed decisions about contraception and family planning. This knowledge empowers adolescents to take control of their reproductive health and prevent unintended pregnancies. Healthcare providers, including school nurses, play a vital role in educating young individuals about sexual health and contraception to promote responsible behavior and informed choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of maternal monitoring during labor, identifying high-risk factors that may impact the health of the fetus is crucial for ensuring a safe delivery. Maternal diabetes is a significant risk factor that can lead to complications during pregnancy, such as macrosomia (large birth weight) in the fetus. Therefore, it is essential to conduct fetal diagnostic procedures to monitor the well-being of the baby in utero. Option A (Maternal diabetes) is the correct answer because it directly correlates with potential fetal complications that warrant fetal diagnostic procedures. Maternal diabetes can lead to issues such as fetal macrosomia, birth defects, and other complications that require close monitoring. Option B (Weight gain of 25 lb) is not a direct indication for fetal diagnostic procedures. While excessive weight gain during pregnancy can have implications for maternal health, it does not necessarily indicate a need for fetal monitoring procedures. Option C (Maternal age older than 30 years) is a common risk factor for certain pregnancy complications, but it alone is not a direct indication for fetal diagnostic procedures. Advanced maternal age may increase the risk of chromosomal abnormalities but does not mandate immediate fetal monitoring. Option D (Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth) is not a clear indication for fetal diagnostic procedures either. While a history of delivering a large baby may suggest a potential risk for macrosomia in subsequent pregnancies, it is not a definitive reason to perform fetal diagnostic procedures without other concerning factors present. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the need for fetal diagnostic procedures based on specific maternal risk factors is essential for nurses and healthcare providers involved in maternal care. By recognizing which factors necessitate closer monitoring, healthcare professionals can provide targeted care and interventions to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of maternal monitoring during labor, optimal nursing care after an amniocentesis includes monitoring uterine activity. This is the correct answer because after an amniocentesis, it is crucial to assess uterine activity to ensure that the procedure has not triggered any adverse effects such as preterm labor or uterine irritability. Monitoring uterine activity allows the healthcare team to promptly address any complications that may arise and ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby. Pushing fluids by mouth (Option A) is important for hydration during labor, but it is not specifically related to post-amniocentesis care. Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours (Option C) is contraindicated as it may increase the risk of supine hypotension syndrome due to compression of the vena cava. Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site (Option D) is not typically done after an amniocentesis as the puncture site is usually small and does not require a pressure dressing. In an educational context, understanding the importance of monitoring uterine activity after an amniocentesis is crucial for nurses caring for laboring women who have undergone this procedure. It ensures that they can provide safe and effective care, recognizing and responding to any potential complications promptly. This knowledge is essential for promoting positive maternal and neonatal outcomes during labor and delivery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes. In the context of maternal monitoring during labor, the L/S (lecithin/sphingomyelin) ratio is used to assess fetal lung maturity. A ratio of 2:1 is considered abnormal because it indicates insufficient lung maturity, which can increase the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Option A is less likely to be abnormal as the patient is at term, which increases the likelihood of fetal lung maturity. Option C is also less likely to be abnormal as the patient is at term and has a history of multiple pregnancies, which may indicate fetal lung maturity. Option D is less likely as the patient is in early labor at term, which allows time for fetal lung maturity to progress. Understanding the implications of abnormal L/S ratios is crucial in obstetric pharmacology to guide clinical decision-making regarding the timing and management of labor to optimize neonatal outcomes. It is essential for healthcare providers to interpret these results accurately to provide appropriate care for both the mother and the newborn.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Fibrinogen. During pregnancy, fibrinogen levels increase as part of the body's preparation for potential blood loss during labor and delivery. This elevation is a normal physiological response to support hemostasis and prevent excessive bleeding postpartum. A) Glucose levels may fluctuate during pregnancy due to changes in insulin sensitivity, but they are not typically elevated above prepregnancy levels unless gestational diabetes is present. C) Hematocrit levels may decrease during pregnancy due to hemodilution, which is a normal adaptation to support increased blood volume needed for maternal and fetal circulation. Therefore, hematocrit levels are not expected to be elevated above prepregnancy levels. D) Bilirubin levels are not typically expected to be elevated above prepregnancy levels during pregnancy unless there is a specific underlying medical condition affecting liver function or red blood cell breakdown. Educationally, understanding the normal physiological changes in laboratory values during pregnancy is crucial for nurses providing care to pregnant clients. This knowledge helps in early identification of deviations from normal and prompt intervention if needed to ensure optimal maternal and fetal outcomes.