The research nurse is meeting with a patient and determines, based on the assessment, that the patient meets inclusion criteria for clinical research. The patient agrees to participate in the clinical trial. The nurse advises the patient that which member of the health care team has the responsibility to explain the study and respond to questions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Health care provider. The health care provider, typically the physician or principal investigator, is responsible for explaining the study details and addressing any questions the patient may have. As the primary individual overseeing the patient's care and treatment, the health care provider is best equipped to provide comprehensive information about the research study. Registered nurses (choice A) may assist in conveying information, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the health care provider. Pharmacists (choice B) play a crucial role in medication management but are not typically involved in explaining research studies. Research associates (choice C) may aid in study coordination but do not have the same level of medical expertise as the health care provider.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: II. Schedule II drugs in the US have the highest potential for abuse among drugs with accepted medical uses. This is because they have a high potential for psychological and physical dependence. These drugs have strict regulations for prescribing and dispensing to minimize the risk of abuse. Schedule III, IV, and V drugs have lower abuse potential compared to Schedule II drugs. Schedule III drugs have a moderate to low potential for abuse, while Schedule IV and V drugs have even lower potential for abuse and are considered to have accepted medical uses with lower risk of dependence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because drugs with a smaller volume of distribution tend to stay in the bloodstream longer, leading to a longer half-life. This is important for determining dosing intervals. Option B is incorrect because oral drugs are usually absorbed through passive diffusion or active transport, not pinocytosis. Option C is incorrect because patients with kidney disease may actually have more protein-binding sites, leading to potential drug accumulation. Option D is incorrect because rapid absorption typically increases the bioavailability of the drug, not decreases it.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates understanding of the importance of dietary modifications in managing diabetes. By stating "I will no longer put sugar on my cereal because that will help me be healthier," the patient shows a willingness to make lifestyle changes to improve their health. This indicates a commitment to adhering to the prescribed treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests the patient expects immediate relief and may stop taking the medication prematurely. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on fear-based motivation rather than understanding the benefits of medication adherence. Choice D is incorrect as it reflects a fatalistic attitude that may hinder the patient's engagement in self-care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: It remains the same. Hepatic enzyme inducers can increase the metabolism of warfarin, leading to decreased levels. However, the dose adjustment is usually not necessary because the international normalized ratio (INR) can be monitored and the warfarin dose can be adjusted accordingly to maintain therapeutic levels. Increasing or decreasing the dose preemptively without INR monitoring can lead to adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the dose can lead to over-anticoagulation. Choice B is incorrect as decreasing the dose can result in under-anticoagulation. Choice D is incorrect as the effect of hepatic enzyme inducers on warfarin metabolism is predictable, but the dose adjustment is based on INR monitoring.