ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
The relationship between abdominal pain and vomiting typically can be characterized by saying
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The presence of bile in vomitus suggests that the vomit originated from the small intestine or stomach, indicating an obstruction in the pyloric region. Step 2: Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the small intestine, leading to projectile vomiting with bile. Step 3: Therefore, the presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis, making option D the correct answer. Summary: Option A is incorrect because vomiting preceding pain does not necessarily indicate a surgical abdomen. Option B is incorrect as the severity of symptoms is not solely based on age. Option C is incorrect as some surgical abdomens can present with vomiting as a primary symptom.
Question 2 of 5
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Cognitive ability is important for decision-making during surgery. 2. Functional status helps assess the patient's ability to recover post-surgery. 3. Competency assessment ensures the patient can consent to surgery. 4. Frailty score predicts surgical outcomes in geriatric patients. 5. Cognitive ability is not typically assessed preoperatively in the ACS/NSQIP guidelines. Summary: - A: Cognitive ability is not typically part of preoperative evaluation. - B: Functional status is important for post-surgery recovery. - C: Competency assessment is crucial for informed consent. - D: Frailty score helps predict surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
Question 3 of 5
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.
Question 4 of 5
A patient being monitored post-heart transplant suffers a bradyarrhythmia. The AGACNP knows that which of the following medications is not indicated as part of emergency intervention for bradycardic abnormalities in a posttransplant patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoproterenol 0.2 to 0.6 mg IV bolus. Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that can worsen graft rejection in heart transplant patients. The appropriate intervention for bradyarrhythmia in posttransplant patients is external pacemaking or pharmacological agents like atropine or epinephrine. Isoproterenol should be avoided due to its potential to stimulate the immune system and increase the risk of rejection. It is crucial to choose interventions that address the bradycardia without compromising the patient's transplant graft.
Question 5 of 5
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Provide counseling to the patient regarding her options. The AGACNP's initial action should prioritize the patient's well-being and autonomy. Counseling allows the patient to understand her options, including legal, medical, and emotional support. Reporting to law enforcement (A) without the patient's consent violates her autonomy. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (B) disregards the potential danger and trauma she may face. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (C) may not address the immediate emotional and physical needs of the patient.