The recommended treatment modality in clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

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Question 1 of 5

The recommended treatment modality in clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The recommended treatment modality for clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder is Behavior Therapy, not Psychoanalysis. Behavior therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is considered the first-line treatment for OCD. This therapy focuses on changing the patterns of behavior that contribute to the disorder. Psychotherapy, although beneficial in some cases, is not as effective as behavior therapy for OCD. Aversion therapy involves associating a stimulus with a negative outcome to reduce the frequency of a specific behavior, which is not the primary approach for OCD.

Question 2 of 5

Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect in a client addicted to hallucinogens?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clients addicted to hallucinogens often exhibit constricted pupils due to the effects of the drug on the sympathetic nervous system. This sympathetic stimulation causes the pupils to constrict rather than dilate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dilated pupils are more commonly associated with stimulant use, while bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing) are not typical effects of hallucinogens.

Question 3 of 5

In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.

Question 4 of 5

An adolescent client has bloodshot eyes, a voracious appetite, and dry mouth. Which drug abuse would the nurse most likely suspect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms described, including bloodshot eyes, a voracious appetite, and dry mouth, are consistent with marijuana use. Bloodshot eyes are a common side effect of marijuana due to its effect on blood vessels in the eyes. Marijuana also often causes an increase in appetite (known as 'the munchies') and can result in dry mouth. Amphetamines typically cause symptoms like increased alertness, energy, and decreased appetite. Barbiturates and anxiolytics would not typically cause bloodshot eyes, a voracious appetite, and dry mouth as described in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely drug abuse the nurse would suspect in this case is marijuana.

Question 5 of 5

In an extreme situation and when no other resident or intern is available, should a nurse receive telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In an extreme situation where no other resident or intern is available, if a nurse receives telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within 36 hours. This time frame ensures timely documentation and validation of the orders. Choice A (24 hours) is too short a period for busy physicians to fulfill the task. Choice C (48 hours) is too long and delays the incorporation of physician orders into the patient's care plan. Choice D (12 hours) may not provide enough time for the physician to review and sign the order, especially in situations where immediate attention is not required.

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