ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The recommended range for maintaining serum theophylline levels is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (10 to 20 ug/ml) for maintaining serum theophylline levels. This range is recommended for therapeutic efficacy with minimal side effects. Levels below 10 ug/ml may not be effective, while levels above 20 ug/ml can lead to toxicity. Choice A (20 to 25 ug/ml) and Choice B (30 to 40 ug/ml) are too high and could result in toxicity. Choice C (0.05 to 2 ug/ml) is too low for therapeutic effect. Therefore, maintaining theophylline levels within the range of 10 to 20 ug/ml is the ideal balance for effective treatment.
Question 2 of 5
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is A because it states that only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR. Step 2: This indicates that a single dose may not provide full immunity, necessitating a second dose. Step 3: By providing two doses, the likelihood of achieving immunity in a higher percentage of patients increases. Step 4: This ensures a more thorough and effective immunization process. Summary: Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of two doses for higher immunity rates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific need for two MMR doses for optimal immunization effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
Which mechanism of action or pharmacological action is best associated with sitagliptin (januvia) and saxagliptin (onglyza)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sitagliptin and saxagliptin are both DDP-4 inhibitors. 2. DDP-4 inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme DDP-4, which degrades incretin hormones. 3. Incretin hormones increase insulin release and decrease glucagon secretion. 4. This results in improved blood sugar control in patients with type 2 diabetes. Summary: A: Binds PPAR-Gamma - Incorrect, as sitagliptin and saxagliptin do not bind PPAR-Gamma. B: Decreases insulin resistance - Incorrect, as DDP-4 inhibitors primarily work on incretin hormones. C: Increases insulin sensitivity - Incorrect, as the main action of DDP-4 inhibitors is through incretin hormones, not directly on insulin sensitivity.
Question 4 of 5
Bethanechol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Bethanechol is a muscarinic receptor agonist that increases detrusor muscle tone to promote bladder emptying. This is its primary pharmacological action. Choice A is incorrect because Bethanechol does not affect LDL cholesterol levels. Choice C is incorrect because Bethanechol does not have a significant effect on bronchial airway constriction. Choice D is incorrect because Bethanechol does not decrease gastric acid secretion.
Question 5 of 5
Which benzodiazepines are commonly used as sleep aids? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answers for benzodiazepines commonly used as sleep aids are Temazepam. Temazepam is a benzodiazepine that is specifically indicated for the treatment of insomnia. It has a relatively short onset of action and duration of effect, making it suitable for sleep induction. Flurazepam is also used as a sleep aid due to its long half-life, but it is less commonly prescribed compared to Temazepam. Chlor diazepoxide and Triazolam are not typically used as sleep aids. Chlor diazepoxide is more commonly used for alcohol withdrawal and anxiety disorders, while Triazolam is used for the short-term treatment of insomnia but has a higher potential for abuse and dependence compared to Temazepam.