The recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy for a patient with a DVT in their leg is:

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Hematological drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

The recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy for a patient with a DVT in their leg is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of treating a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg, the recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy is a direct factor Xa inhibitor, which is option D. Direct factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban, apixaban, or edoxaban have become preferred agents due to their efficacy, safety, and convenience compared to older agents like warfarin. These medications directly inhibit factor Xa in the coagulation cascade, preventing the formation of thrombin and subsequent clot propagation. Option A, low-molecular-weight heparin, is commonly used initially in the acute treatment of DVT but is not recommended for long-term therapy due to the need for subcutaneous injections and monitoring. Option B, warfarin tapered monthly, is no longer the first-line option for long-term anticoagulation due to its narrow therapeutic window, interactions with food and other medications, and the need for frequent monitoring. Option C, aspirin 325 mg daily, is not recommended as the sole therapy for DVT as it is an antiplatelet agent rather than a direct anticoagulant, and its efficacy in preventing DVT extension or recurrence is limited. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate antithrombotic therapy for DVT is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with thrombotic disorders. It is essential to stay updated on current guidelines and evidence-based practices to provide optimal care and prevent complications in patients with DVT.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is presented with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and numbness that progressively worsens. Peripheral blood smear shows macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is not the factor causing this condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms and macrocytic anemia suggest vitamin B12 deficiency, commonly caused by chronic atrophic gastritis (reduced intrinsic factor), ileal resection (impaired absorption), tapeworm (competes for B12), and nitrous oxide (inactivates B12). Alcoholism typically causes folate deficiency, not directly B12 deficiency.

Question 3 of 5

A 30 year old patient had presented with fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over the past two years. Which is the most probably causative organism?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most probable causative organism for a 30-year-old patient presenting with fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over the past two years is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (Option C). The rationale behind this is that Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the causative agent of African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), which is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms over weeks to months, including lymphadenopathy and systemic manifestations like fever. The infection progresses slowly, often leading to neurological symptoms in the later stages. Option A, Trypanosoma cruzi, is the causative agent of Chagas disease, which typically presents with acute febrile illness followed by chronic cardiac and gastrointestinal complications, not lymphadenopathy. Option B, Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense, causes acute African trypanosomiasis, which has a rapid onset and is not consistent with the chronic presentation described in the case. Option D, Leishmania donovani, is responsible for visceral leishmaniasis, which presents with hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, and fever, but not specifically with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Educationally, understanding the specific clinical manifestations and causative organisms of different hematological diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. This knowledge helps healthcare providers make informed decisions regarding patient management and ensures optimal outcomes for patients.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following will be present in chronic bacterial infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In chronic bacterial infections, such as tuberculosis, neutrophilia is typically present. Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections, so an increase in their levels is a characteristic response to ongoing bacterial invasion. Neutrophilia reflects the body's attempt to combat the infection by increasing the number of these phagocytic cells to the site of infection. Basophilia, on the other hand, is associated with conditions like chronic myeloid leukemia or certain allergic reactions, not chronic bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis is seen more commonly in viral infections or in chronic lymphocytic leukemia, not in chronic bacterial infections. Eosinophilia is typically seen in parasitic infections, allergic reactions, or certain autoimmune conditions, but not specifically in chronic bacterial infections. Educationally, understanding the different types of leukocytosis and their associations with various conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and managing patients effectively. Recognizing the specific patterns of hematological changes can provide valuable diagnostic insights and guide appropriate treatment strategies based on the underlying etiology of the infection.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is the most suitable anti malarial drug for pregnant women?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most suitable anti-malarial drug for pregnant women is option C) Quinine and clindamycin. Quinine is often recommended during pregnancy for the treatment of malaria due to its long history of safe use in pregnant women. Clindamycin is commonly combined with quinine to improve efficacy and reduce the duration of treatment. Option A) Atovaquone and proguanil are not recommended in pregnancy due to limited safety data, especially in the first trimester where drug exposure can potentially harm the developing fetus. Option B) Quinine and doxycycline should be avoided in pregnancy as doxycycline is contraindicated due to its potential to cause harm to the fetus, particularly affecting bone and teeth development. Option D) Primaquine is not suitable for use in pregnant women, especially during the first trimester, as it can cause hemolysis in individuals with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, which can be harmful to both the mother and the developing fetus. In an educational context, understanding the safety profiles of medications in pregnancy is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the unborn child. It is essential to consider the risks and benefits of each medication and select the most appropriate treatment based on the individual patient's condition and pregnancy status.

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