The reason for preferring ethosuximide to valproate for uncomplicated absence seizures is:

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The reason for preferring ethosuximide to valproate for uncomplicated absence seizures is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of uncomplicated absence seizures, preferring ethosuximide over valproate is primarily due to valproate's idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity. This adverse effect can be severe and potentially life-threatening, making it a significant concern when considering treatment options. Ethosuximide, on the other hand, is generally well-tolerated and does not carry the same risk of hepatotoxicity as valproate. Choosing ethosuximide over valproate is not based on efficacy, as both drugs have shown effectiveness in treating absence seizures. While valproate does have greater CNS depressant activity compared to ethosuximide, this factor alone is not the primary reason for preferring one drug over the other in the context of uncomplicated absence seizures. From an educational standpoint, understanding the differences in side effect profiles and safety considerations of antiepileptic drugs is crucial for healthcare providers when making treatment decisions. By knowing the specific reasons for choosing one medication over another in certain situations, healthcare professionals can optimize patient outcomes while minimizing potential risks and adverse effects. In the case of uncomplicated absence seizures, prioritizing safety by avoiding valproate's hepatotoxicity makes ethosuximide a more suitable choice despite its potential limitations in other areas.

Question 2 of 5

The symptoms resulting from the combination of disulfiram and alcohol are:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Nausea, vomiting. The symptoms resulting from the combination of disulfiram and alcohol are due to the disulfiram-alcohol reaction. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed. This results in symptoms such as flushing, throbbing headache, sweating, nausea, and vomiting. Option A) Hypertensive crisis leading to cerebral ischemia and edema is incorrect because this is not a typical symptom of the disulfiram-alcohol reaction. Hypertensive crisis is more commonly associated with other drug interactions or conditions. Option C) Respiratory depression and seizures are not typical symptoms of the disulfiram-alcohol reaction. These symptoms are more commonly seen with opioid overdose or certain CNS depressants. Option D) Acute psychotic reactions are not typically seen in the disulfiram-alcohol reaction. Acute psychotic reactions may be associated with other substances or underlying mental health conditions. Educationally, understanding the interactions between drugs like disulfiram and alcohol is crucial for healthcare professionals to prevent adverse reactions in patients. It highlights the importance of patient education regarding medication use and alcohol avoidance to prevent harmful interactions and improve patient outcomes.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following phenothiazine derivatives may produce cardiac toxicity,including ventricular arrhythmias cardiac conduction block and sudden death?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the potential cardiac toxicities of different drug classes is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In this case, the correct answer is A) Thioridazine. Thioridazine, a phenothiazine derivative, is known to have a higher risk of producing cardiac toxicity compared to other phenothiazines. It can lead to ventricular arrhythmias, cardiac conduction block, and even sudden death. This is due to its propensity to prolong the QT interval, which can predispose patients to life-threatening arrhythmias like Torsades de Pointes. Chlorpromazine (B), Perphenazine (C), and Fluphenazine (D) are also phenothiazine derivatives commonly used in clinical practice. While they may have their own side effects and toxicities, they are not typically associated with the same degree of cardiac toxicity as thioridazine. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of knowing the specific adverse effect profiles of individual drugs within the same class. It underscores the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring patients on thioridazine for any signs or symptoms of cardiac toxicity, especially in those with preexisting cardiac conditions or taking other medications that can prolong the QT interval. Such knowledge can aid in making informed decisions regarding drug selection and patient management to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes while minimizing risks.

Question 4 of 5

Indicate CNC stimulating drugs,which are the agents of general action:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pharmacology, analeptics are central nervous system (CNS) stimulating drugs that have a general stimulant effect on the brain and spinal cord. These drugs work by increasing the overall activity of the CNS, leading to heightened alertness, improved mood, and increased physical activity. They are used to treat conditions such as respiratory depression, drug overdose, and narcolepsy. Option A, nootropic agents, are drugs that enhance cognitive function and memory but do not have a general stimulant effect on the CNS. They work by improving brain function in specific ways, such as increasing neurotransmitter levels or improving blood flow to the brain. Option C, psychostimulants, are drugs that stimulate the CNS to increase alertness, attention, and energy. While they do have a stimulating effect on the brain, they are more commonly used to treat conditions like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy rather than for general CNS stimulation. Option D, antidepressants, are drugs that are used to treat depression by altering the levels of neurotransmitters in the brain. While some antidepressants may have stimulating effects as a side effect, they are not primarily classified as CNS stimulating drugs. Understanding the classification and mechanism of action of different types of drugs is crucial in pharmacology to ensure safe and effective treatment. Analeptics are specifically designed to have a general stimulating effect on the CNS, making them the correct answer in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following disadvantages does not limit using benzodiazepines as antianxiety agents?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the limitations of drug classes is crucial for safe and effective prescribing. In the context of benzodiazepines as antianxiety agents, the correct answer is D) The formation of active metabolites does not limit the use of benzodiazepines. This is because benzodiazepines are generally well-tolerated and their active metabolites contribute to their pharmacological effects without posing significant drawbacks. Option A) Tendency to develop psychologic dependence is a significant limitation of benzodiazepines. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and potential abuse, making them less suitable for long-term therapy. Option B) A high risk of drug interactions based on liver enzyme induction is another limitation. Benzodiazepines can induce liver enzymes, affecting the metabolism of other drugs and leading to potential interactions and altered drug efficacy. Option C) Synergic CNS depression with concomitant use of other drugs is also a limiting factor. Combining benzodiazepines with other central nervous system depressants like alcohol or opioids can potentiate sedation and respiratory depression, increasing the risk of adverse effects. Educationally, students must grasp the advantages and limitations of drug classes to make informed clinical decisions. Understanding the specific drawbacks of benzodiazepines can help healthcare providers tailor treatment plans to individual patient needs, considering factors like potential for dependence, drug interactions, and adverse effects.

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