ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The rate of obesity in the United States has reached epidemic proportions. Morbidity and mortality for both the mother and baby are increased in these circumstances. The nurse caring for the patient with an elevated BMI should be cognizant of these potential complications and plan care accordingly. Significant risks include (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breech presentation. Obesity can lead to a larger fetus, increasing the risk of breech presentation. The rationale is that excess fat can hinder the baby's ability to turn head down. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Ectopic pregnancy is not related to obesity, C: Birth defects can be influenced by maternal health but are not directly linked to obesity, and D: Venous thromboembolism is more associated with immobility and hypercoagulable states rather than obesity.
Question 2 of 9
A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensuring patient privacy. In the PLISSIT model, ensuring patient privacy is crucial as it creates a safe and confidential environment for discussing sensitive topics like sexual health. This step helps build trust and allows the patient to feel comfortable sharing intimate details. Briefly teaching about normal sexual physiology (A) may come later in the assessment process. Assuring confidentiality (B) is important but doesn't address the immediate need for privacy. Asking if the patient is willing to discuss sexual functioning (C) assumes patient readiness without first establishing a private setting.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 4 of 9
Which findings should the nurse follow up on afterremoval of a catheter from a patient? (Select allthat apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dribbling of urine. This finding should be followed up on after catheter removal because it may indicate urinary retention or incomplete bladder emptying, which can lead to complications such as urinary tract infection. A: Increasing fluid intake is important for overall hydration but is not a specific finding that requires follow-up after catheter removal. C: Voiding in small amounts may be a normal response initially after catheter removal and does not necessarily indicate a problem. D: Voiding within 6 hours of catheter removal is a positive sign of bladder function recovery and does not require immediate follow-up.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is charting on a patient’s record. Whichaction will the nurse take that is accurate legally?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Charts legibly. This is accurate legally because clear and legible documentation is crucial for accurately conveying patient information, ensuring continuity of care, and meeting legal standards. Illegible handwriting can lead to errors in patient care and legal issues. Choice B is incorrect as labeling a patient as "belligerent" without evidence can be perceived as unprofessional and potentially harmful to the patient. Choice C is incorrect as writing an entry for another nurse can lead to inaccurate documentation and legal consequences. Choice D is incorrect because using correction fluid can raise suspicion of tampering with records and compromise the integrity of the documentation.
Question 6 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.
Question 7 of 9
A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is being cared for on an outpatient basis. During health education, the nurse should promote which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Applying a protective eye shield at night is crucial for a patient with Bell's palsy to prevent corneal abrasions due to incomplete eyelid closure. This action helps protect the eye from dryness and injury, which can occur due to decreased blinking and moisture. It is essential to maintain eye health and prevent complications. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Chewing on the affected side does not prevent unilateral neglect in Bell's palsy. Instead, encouraging balanced chewing and facial exercises would be more beneficial. C: Avoiding the use of analgesics is not necessary for Bell's palsy management unless contraindicated, as pain management may be required for associated symptoms. D: Avoiding brushing the teeth is not recommended. Good oral hygiene is important for overall health, including maintaining oral health during Bell's palsy.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with stage 3 HIV. After assessing the patients gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, what is most likely to be the priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diarrhea. In stage 3 HIV, gastrointestinal issues are common due to weakened immune system. Diarrhea can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, making it the priority nursing diagnosis. Acute Abdominal Pain (A) may be a symptom but not the priority. Bowel Incontinence (C) and Constipation (D) are less likely in stage 3 HIV.
Question 9 of 9
A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900 g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (900 mL) because the weight of 900 g corresponds to a blood loss of the same amount in milliliters. Blood density is close to that of water, so 1 g ≈ 1 mL. Therefore, a blood-soaked peripad weighing 900 g indicates a blood loss of 900 mL. Choice A (1800 mL) is incorrect as it doubles the weight instead of converting it to milliliters. Choice B (450 mL) is incorrect as it halves the weight. Choice D (90 mL) is incorrect as it divides the weight by 10, which is too small for the blood loss indicated.