The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is:

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microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protozoans. Protozoans lack a cyst stage, which is a protective, dormant stage that allows them to survive in harsh conditions outside the host. Without a cyst stage, protozoans must be transferred quickly between hosts to avoid exposure to unfavorable environments. Molds (A) are fungi that reproduce through spores and do not have a cyst stage like protozoans. Helminths (C) are parasitic worms that have complex life cycles involving different hosts but do not rely on a cyst stage for survival. Viruses (D) are not considered protozoans and do not have a cyst stage, but they are not classified as protozoans.

Question 2 of 9

A patient has severe catarrhal symptoms. Material growth on Bordet-Gengou agar showed mercury- drop like colonies. Examination of the blood smears revealed some small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns. What microorganisms were isolated?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella. The presence of mercury-drop like colonies on Bordet-Gengou agar indicates Bordetella pertussis. The small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns are characteristic of Bordetella species. Catarrhal symptoms are typical of pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis. Summary of other choices: B: Corynebacteria do not typically exhibit mercury-drop like colonies or small ovoid shapes. C: Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacilli and do not grow on Bordet-Gengou agar. D: Meningococcus is a gram-negative diplococcus and does not match the description provided.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.

Question 4 of 9

Tuberculine was injected intracutaneously to the child for tuberculin test. Marked hyperemia, tissue infiltration developed on the place of injection in 24 hours. What mechanism caused these modifications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Granuloma formation. In response to tuberculosis antigen (tuberculin), the immune system forms a granuloma at the injection site as a defense mechanism. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen and prevent its spread. This process involves macrophages, T cells, and fibroblasts. Choice A (Cells cytotoxity) is incorrect because tuberculin test does not involve direct cell cytotoxicity. Choice B (Reagin type cytotoxity) is incorrect as reagin type hypersensitivity is associated with allergic reactions, not granuloma formation. Choice D (Immunocomplex cytotoxity) is also incorrect as immunocomplex cytotoxicity refers to tissue damage caused by immune complexes, not granuloma formation.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presented with fever, malaise, and an ulcerated lesion. A Gram stain of the lesion revealed large, Gram-positive rods. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Question 6 of 9

Tularemia is most often a:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zoonosis. Tularemia is primarily a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The bacterium that causes tularemia, Francisella tularensis, commonly infects animals like rabbits, rodents, and ticks, which serve as reservoir hosts. Humans can get infected through direct contact with infected animals, insect bites, or contaminated water or soil. This zoonotic nature of tularemia distinguishes it from anthroponosis (A), which is transmitted only between humans, and sapronosis (C), which is transmitted through non-living environmental sources. Choice D is incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is zoonosis.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with a painful ulcer had a wound culture revealing Gram-negative rods with a characteristic 'safety pin' appearance. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is a Gram-negative rod that exhibits a 'safety pin' appearance on staining due to bipolar staining. This bacterium is the causative agent of plague, which can present as painful ulcers known as buboes. Y. pestis is transmitted by fleas and can cause outbreaks in humans. Summary: - B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, not typically associated with painful ulcers. - C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which does not typically present with painful ulcers. - D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, not painful ulcers.

Question 8 of 9

A Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium was isolated from a wound infection. The bacteria were anaerobic and produced gas. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is Gram-positive, spore-forming, anaerobic, and produces gas. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with wound infections due to its ability to produce gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium, but it does not typically produce gas in wound infections. Choice C: Clostridium botulinum is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium, but it is associated with foodborne botulism rather than wound infections. Choice D: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium that causes tetanus, but it does not produce gas in wound infections.

Question 9 of 9

Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because bacterial vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in the vaginal flora, which can be disrupted by frequent douching (eliminating beneficial bacteria), tight clothing (restricting airflow), and non-breathable underwear. Avoiding tight pants and using cotton underwear allow for better ventilation, promoting a healthy vaginal environment. Infrequent douching helps maintain the natural balance of bacteria in the vagina. Choices A and B are incorrect because they recommend practices that can disrupt the vaginal flora and increase the risk of bacterial vaginitis. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the emphasis on avoiding frequent douching, which is crucial in preventing bacterial vaginitis.

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