ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 2 of 9
In assessing the sclera of a patient of African descent, which of the following would be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because people of African descent commonly have a pigmented layer near the outer canthus of the lower lid called the "plica semilunaris." This is a normal anatomical variation in this population. Yellow fatty deposits over the cornea (choice A) are not typical findings in this demographic. Yellow color of the sclera extending up to the iris (choice C) is not a characteristic feature. The presence of small brown macules on the sclera (choice D) is also not a common finding in individuals of African descent.
Question 3 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.
Question 4 of 9
A 19-year-old community college student is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache he describes as"like nothing I've ever had before." His temperature is 40°C, and his neck is stiff. What do these signs and symptoms suggest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms - severe headache, high fever, and neck stiffness - in a young adult point towards meningeal inflammation. The combination of these symptoms is indicative of a potential infection or inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The presence of fever and neck stiffness, in addition to the severe headache, raises concern for meningitis, an infection of the meninges. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Head injury usually presents with a history of trauma, which is not mentioned in the scenario. B: Cluster headaches typically do not present with fever and neck stiffness. C: Migraine headaches do not typically cause such high fever and neck stiffness.
Question 5 of 9
The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate explanation for the frequent ear infections in the 2-year-old. The eustachian tube in children is indeed shorter and wider compared to adults, making it easier for infections to develop. This anatomical difference predisposes young children to ear infections. Choice A is incorrect because it falsely implies that frequent ear infections in small children are unusual only if something else is wrong. Choice B is incorrect as checking the immune system is not typically the first step in addressing recurrent ear infections. Choice C is incorrect as cerumen (earwax) does not directly contribute to ear infections in the middle ear.
Question 6 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is taking history from a patient who may have a perforated eardrum. What would be an important question in this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it directly addresses the concern of a possible perforated eardrum by inquiring about the relationship between ear pain and discharge. This is crucial in assessing the severity of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on subjective symptoms not specific to a perforated eardrum. Choice B is irrelevant as it doesn't pertain to the immediate concern. Choice C is also incorrect as it doesn't target the current issue of a potential perforated eardrum. Asking about ear pain and discharge helps determine the likelihood of a perforated eardrum and guides further assessment and care.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys. One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT). Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one pinch of smokeless tobacco (SLT) in the mouth for 30 minutes can indeed deliver a similar amount of nicotine as smoking one cigarette. This is because the nicotine in SLT is absorbed through the oral mucosa directly into the bloodstream, providing a quick effect. This statement is accurate and reflects the pharmacokinetics of SLT use. Option B is incorrect because smoking carries a higher risk of oral cancer compared to SLT use. Option C is incorrect as pain is not always an early sign of oral cancer, and other symptoms such as non-healing sores or lumps may indicate oral cancer. Option D is incorrect as pain can sometimes be an early sign of oral cancer, especially in advanced stages.
Question 9 of 9
A patient's laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The nurse would examine the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.