ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.
Question 2 of 9
Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, dehydration in pregnancy. It is more severe than typical morning sickness (choice A) and is not specific to multiple gestation (choice B). Hypertensive disorders (choice D) typically present with high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema, not just nausea and vomiting. Hyperemesis gravidarum requires medical intervention due to potential complications from dehydration and malnutrition.
Question 3 of 9
Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy due to damage to the lower brachial plexus. This results in weakness of the hand and forearm muscles. Erb's palsy is from injury to C5-C6 roots causing upper brachial plexus damage. Phrenic injury affects the diaphragm due to C3-C5 roots. Radial palsy involves the radial nerve, typically from injury at the spiral groove of the humerus. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly correlates with the specific nerve roots affected in Klumpke's palsy.
Question 4 of 9
Diagnosis of occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. External examination can reveal the position of the baby's head. 2. Ultrasound can confirm the baby's position accurately. 3. Physical exam and pelvic exam findings can provide additional information. 4. Combining both methods (A and B) ensures a comprehensive assessment for accurate diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A alone may not provide sufficient information. - Choice B alone may not be as accurate as combined with ultrasound. - Choice C is not specific to diagnosing occipito-posterior position. - Choice D is correct as it combines external examination, ultrasound, and physical exam for accurate diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
Outline four (4) causes of obstructed labour:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Fetal macrosomia, malpresentation, and pelvic abnormalities are all known causes of obstructed labor. Fetal macrosomia refers to a large baby, which can lead to difficulty in passing through the birth canal. Malpresentation occurs when the baby is not positioned optimally for delivery, such as breech or transverse positions. Pelvic abnormalities, such as a contracted pelvis, can impede the baby's passage during labor. Therefore, selecting option D is appropriate as it encompasses all the major causes of obstructed labor. Choices A, B, and C are not individually comprehensive enough to cover all potential causes of obstructed labor.
Question 6 of 9
The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.
Question 7 of 9
How does the maternal microbiome influence the health of the fetus during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: By altering immune development. The maternal microbiome plays a crucial role in shaping the fetal immune system during pregnancy. Microbes in the mother's body can influence the development of the fetus's immune system through various mechanisms, such as immune cells crossing the placenta. This interaction helps the fetus develop tolerance to maternal antigens. Choice A (By increasing fetal weight) is incorrect because the maternal microbiome's influence is not primarily related to weight gain. Choice C (By reducing placental oxygen levels) is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the immune system development. Choice D (By enhancing amniotic fluid) is incorrect as the main influence is on the immune system rather than amniotic fluid enhancement.
Question 8 of 9
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCFAHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. The ACCF/AHA recommends cardiac consultation before an operation for patients on antiplatelet therapy to assess the risk of bleeding versus thrombotic events. 2. Cardiac consultation helps determine the necessity of continuing, modifying, or stopping antiplatelet therapy. 3. This individualized approach ensures optimal perioperative management based on the patient's cardiovascular risk profile. 4. Choice A is incorrect as stopping antiplatelet therapy for 10 days can increase the risk of thrombotic events. 5. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the decision-making process without considering the patient's specific risks. 6. Choice D is incorrect because initiating antiplatelet therapy in all high-risk cardiac procedures may not be necessary for every patient.
Question 9 of 9
In breech delivery, the midwife is advised to keep her hands off the breech as it progressively descends so as to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent excessive traction being applied. This is because in a breech delivery, excessive traction can lead to complications such as fetal injuries or umbilical cord prolapse. The midwife should avoid pulling on the baby's legs or body to prevent undue stress on the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Ascertain the fetal wellbeing in utero - this is typically done through other means such as fetal monitoring. B: Allow enough room for the fetus to pass - this should be done by ensuring proper positioning and allowing natural descent. C: Allow gravitating descent of the fetus - this is not a recommended practice as it can cause complications.