The PRIORITY action to take when nursing a neonate on phototherapy is to

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Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 9

The PRIORITY action to take when nursing a neonate on phototherapy is to

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the neonate’s vital signs every 2-4 hourly. This is the priority action because neonates undergoing phototherapy are at risk for dehydration and temperature instability. Monitoring vital signs regularly helps to detect any signs of dehydration, such as decreased urine output or increased heart rate, and ensures timely intervention. Explanation for other choices: A: Turning the neonate every six hours routinely is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not the priority when compared to monitoring vital signs for potential complications. B: Encouraging the mother to discontinue breastfeeding is incorrect as breastmilk provides essential nutrients and hydration, which are important for neonates, even during phototherapy. C: Notifying the physician if the skin turns bronze-colored is important to address a potential adverse reaction to phototherapy but does not take precedence over monitoring vital signs for immediate concerns.

Question 2 of 9

The commonest major cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions. Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage. Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.

Question 3 of 9

Chemical diabetes mellitus is a classification based on

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results. Chemical diabetes mellitus refers to a condition where there are abnormal specific laboratory results indicating diabetes without the presence of any symptoms. This classification is based on objective data from laboratory tests rather than subjective symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the definition of chemical diabetes mellitus, which focuses on laboratory results rather than symptoms, congenital abnormalities, or pregnancy outcomes.

Question 4 of 9

Specific management of moderate pre-eclampsia involves

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Managing as an outpatient case) Rationale: 1. Moderate pre-eclampsia indicates stable condition. 2. Outpatient management allows close monitoring without hospitalization. 3. Early intervention can prevent progression to severe pre-eclampsia. 4. Hospital admission is reserved for severe cases or complications (not moderate). 5. Encouraging fluids is important, but not the specific management for pre-eclampsia.

Question 5 of 9

The presenting diameter in brow presentation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the submentobregmatic diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is partially extended, causing the forehead (bregma) to be the presenting part. The submentobregmatic diameter is the distance between the chin (mentum) and the highest point of the forehead (bregma). This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in brow presentation as it is the smallest diameter that must pass through the maternal pelvis. Summary of other choices: B: Suboccipitofrontal - This diameter is not relevant in brow presentation as it involves the back of the head. C: Occipitalfrontal - This diameter is the distance between the back of the head and the forehead, also not relevant in brow presentation. D: Mentovertical - This diameter is the distance between the chin and the vertex of the head, not the forehead.

Question 6 of 9

Greatly reduced eliminations and red rosy appearance of face are among the features of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is C: Hyperthermia neonatorum. Greatly reduced eliminations and a red rosy appearance of the face are indicative of hyperthermia, which is an elevated body temperature. This condition can lead to dehydration and other complications. A: Hypothermia neonatorum is characterized by low body temperature, not elevated. B: Hypoglycemia neonatorum refers to low blood sugar levels, not related to the symptoms mentioned. D: Hypocalcemia neonatorum is a deficiency of calcium in the blood, not associated with the given features. In summary, hyperthermia neonatorum is the correct answer due to the specific symptoms presented, while the other choices do not align with the described features.

Question 7 of 9

What are the symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because during pregnancy, UTI symptoms include painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and lower abdominal pain. Painful urination is a common symptom due to inflammation of the urinary tract. Increased frequency of urination is caused by the pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. Lower abdominal pain can also occur due to the infection. Therefore, all these symptoms are indicative of a UTI during pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the comprehensive range of symptoms typically seen in a UTI during pregnancy.

Question 8 of 9

Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade VVI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute mitral valve regurgitation. The presence of a grade VVI systolic murmur that radiates to the midaxillary line suggests mitral valve involvement. Mitral regurgitation leads to acute onset of symptoms such as dyspnea and pulmonary congestion, indicated by coarse rales on auscultation. The murmur is loudest at the point of maximal impulse due to eccentric regurgitation jet. Acute aortic valve regurgitation (B) typically presents with a diastolic murmur. Acute cardiac tamponade (C) would present with Beck's triad and pulsus paradoxus. Acute pulmonary embolus (D) would present with sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.

Question 9 of 9

A patient being monitored post-heart transplant suffers a bradyarrhythmia. The AGACNP knows that which of the following medications is not indicated as part of emergency intervention for bradycardic abnormalities in a posttransplant patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoproterenol 0.2 to 0.6 mg IV bolus. Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that can worsen graft rejection in heart transplant patients. The appropriate intervention for bradyarrhythmia in posttransplant patients is external pacemaking or pharmacological agents like atropine or epinephrine. Isoproterenol should be avoided due to its potential to stimulate the immune system and increase the risk of rejection. It is crucial to choose interventions that address the bradycardia without compromising the patient's transplant graft.

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