The primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema is:

Questions 68

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ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Pulmonary edema is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs due to increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature. Step 2: Decreased left ventricular pumping leads to congestive heart failure, causing increased pressure in pulmonary circulation. Step 3: This increased pressure forces fluid from the capillaries into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema. Step 4: Increased left atrial contractility (B) would not directly lead to pulmonary edema. Step 5: Decreased right ventricular elasticity (C) and increased right atrial pressure (D) are not directly related to the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema. Summary: The correct answer is A because decreased left ventricular pumping directly contributes to the increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation that leads to pulmonary edema. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema.

Question 2 of 9

The LPN is caring for a patient in the preoperative period who, even after verbalizing concerns and having questions answered, states, “I know I am not going to wake up after surgery.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the registered nurse. This is the best course of action as the LPN should escalate the situation to a higher level of care by involving the registered nurse who can further assess the patient's concerns and provide appropriate interventions. A. Reassuring the patient may not address the underlying fear and may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety. B. Providing statistics about surgery death rates may further escalate the patient's fears and anxiety, causing more harm than good. D. Involving the family to comfort the patient may not address the patient's specific concerns and may not be within the family's scope of understanding or expertise to effectively address the situation. Informing the registered nurse allows for a more comprehensive assessment and appropriate intervention to address the patient's fears and concerns in a holistic manner.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the ff instructions should a nurse give a client with non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma who is being treated with radiation and chemotherapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase fluid intake. This is important for a client undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma to prevent dehydration, help flush out toxins, and support kidney function. Increasing fluid intake can also help manage side effects like nausea and vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because low-fat meals, soft bland foods, and foods rich in folic acid are not specifically indicated for clients undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Question 4 of 9

A client diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her condition and how to control it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates an understanding of the key factors in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), which include avoiding dehydration and being aware of changes in urination, thirst, and hunger. This statement shows awareness of the importance of maintaining hydration and recognizing early signs of worsening symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as consuming sugary soda can exacerbate the condition by further increasing blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels is important, it is not the primary method of preventing HHNS. Choice D is incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate snacks can contribute to elevated blood glucose levels, which is counterproductive in managing HHNS.

Question 5 of 9

An adult is brought in by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious, on a backboard with his neck immobilized. He is bleeding profusely from a large gash on his right thigh. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check his airway. Ensuring a patent airway is the priority in trauma care to maintain oxygenation and ventilation. With the patient unconscious and bleeding profusely, airway obstruction or compromise is a critical concern. By checking the airway first, the nurse can quickly assess and address any immediate threats to the patient's breathing. Stopping the bleeding (choice A) can be addressed once the airway is secured. Taking vital signs (choice B) and finding out what happened from eyewitnesses (choice D) can be important but are secondary to ensuring the patient's airway is clear and unobstructed.

Question 6 of 9

At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.

Question 7 of 9

Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves verifying the accuracy and consistency of data by comparing it with other reliable sources. This ensures that the data is correct and reliable for analysis. Choice A is incorrect because data validation typically occurs after data collection, which is followed by data interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because validation is not about professional standards but about verifying data accuracy. Choice D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on deriving meaning and insights from data, not on professional standards. In summary, understanding the differences between data validation and interpretation is crucial for ensuring data accuracy and reliability.

Question 8 of 9

A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the ff is the most important factor in the nursing management of a client with CFS?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because educating the client about the disease process and its limitations is crucial in managing Chronic Fatigue Syndrome (CFS). By understanding the disease, the client can make informed decisions regarding their lifestyle, activities, and self-care. This empowers the client to manage symptoms effectively and prevent exacerbations. Choice A is not the most important factor as simply avoiding aggravating the disease does not address the overall management of CFS. Choice B focuses solely on drug therapy, which is only one aspect of the client's management and may not provide significant improvement for all clients with CFS. Choice C, altering diet and environment, can be helpful but may not be the most important factor as understanding the disease process and limitations is essential for long-term management and quality of life.

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