ATI RN
Pregnancy Assessment Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A neural tube defect. Elevated AFP levels in maternal serum are indicative of neural tube defects in the fetus. AFP is produced by the fetal liver and yolk sac, and high levels may suggest a defect in the development of the neural tube. Hemophilia (A), sickle cell anemia (B), and abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio (D) do not directly correlate with AFP levels. Hemophilia is a genetic blood disorder, sickle cell anemia is a genetic blood disorder affecting hemoglobin, and abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is related to fetal lung maturity.
Question 2 of 5
Which factors should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because being positive for group B Streptococcus can increase the risk of infection during transcervical chorionic villus sampling, making it a contraindication. Rh-negative mother (A) and maternal age younger than 35 years (C) are not contraindications. Gestation less than 15 weeks (B) is not a strict contraindication but may affect the accuracy of the procedure.
Question 3 of 5
What does optimal nursing care after an amniocentesis include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitoring uterine activity. After an amniocentesis, it is crucial to monitor uterine activity to detect any signs of preterm labor or uterine contractions. This helps in identifying any potential complications early on and ensures prompt intervention if needed. A: Pushing fluids by mouth is important for hydration but not directly related to optimal nursing care after an amniocentesis. C: Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours is not recommended as it may increase the risk of hypotension and discomfort for the patient. D: Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site is not necessary after an amniocentesis as the risk of bleeding is minimal and pressure dressings may increase the risk of infection.
Question 4 of 5
What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST) is to apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus to assess its response to stress, mimicking the stress of labor. This helps evaluate fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate during contractions. A: Increasing placental blood flow is not the primary purpose of CST. B: Identifying fetal acceleration patterns is not the main goal of CST. C: Determining the degree of fetal activity is not the primary objective of CST. The correct answer is D as it reflects the main purpose of initiating contractions in a CST.
Question 5 of 5
In preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because positioning the patient for comfort and adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate are essential steps in preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test (NST). This allows for proper monitoring of fetal heart rate without interference. A: Having the patient void prior to the test is not necessary for an NST as a full bladder does not interfere with the results. B: Maintaining NPO status is not required for an NST, as it does not involve any invasive procedures that would necessitate fasting. D: Preparing an infusion pump with oxytocin is not part of the standard preparation for an NST and is not needed for evaluation.