ATI RN
nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: filter out dust and bacteria. The ciliated mucous membrane in the nose traps dust and bacteria present in the inhaled air through the mucus layer and then moves them towards the throat to be swallowed or expelled. This helps in protecting the respiratory system from harmful particles. Choice A is incorrect as the warming of inhaled air is primarily done by the nasal passages and sinuses, not the ciliated mucous membrane. Choice C is incorrect because the filtering of coarse particles is also done by the nasal hairs and the mucous membrane working together, not just the ciliated mucous membrane alone. Choice D is incorrect as the movement of air through the nares is mainly controlled by the size of the nostrils and is not the primary function of the ciliated mucous membrane.
Question 2 of 5
A hospitalized patient who has received numerous antibiotics is being assessed by the nurse, who notes that his tongue appears black and hairy. Which of the following would the nurse say to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you've received." The black, hairy tongue is a known side effect of prolonged antibiotic use, which disrupts the balance of normal oral flora and predisposes to fungal overgrowth, specifically of the yeast Candida. Antibiotics can eliminate the competing bacteria that normally keep Candida in check. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are most likely due to a fungal infection related to antibiotic therapy, rather than a bacterial issue or temporary overgrowth of hair. Biopsy is not necessary as the condition is commonly seen in this context and can be managed with appropriate treatment for fungal overgrowth.
Question 3 of 5
When performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, the nurse notices bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs. The skin is puffy and tight but of normal colour. There is no increased redness or tenderness, and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong. In this situation, which of the following is the most likely cause of the edema?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.
Question 4 of 5
During the oral assessment of a 30-year-old patient of African descent, the nurse notes bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the nurse do in response to this finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bluish lips indicate cyanosis, a sign of inadequate oxygen supply. 2. Dark line along gingival margin suggests lead poisoning. 3. The nurse should assess for other signs of inadequate oxygen supply to determine the severity and underlying cause. 4. This finding is not normal and requires further evaluation to prevent complications. Summary: A: Checking hemoglobin for anemia is not the immediate priority when cyanosis and lead poisoning are suspected. C: Assuming this is a normal finding can lead to overlooking a potentially serious condition. D: Carbon monoxide exposure could be a consideration, but assessing for overall oxygen supply is more crucial in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on an adult. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pull the pinna up and back before inserting the speculum. This is because pulling the pinna up and back straightens the auditory canal, allowing for easier and more accurate insertion of the speculum without causing discomfort or injury. Option A is incorrect as tilting the head forward may obstruct the view. Option B is incorrect as maintaining traction is essential for stability. Option D is incorrect as using the smallest speculum may not provide a clear view or proper insertion depth.
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