ATI RN
Questions On The Urinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The primary pacemaker cells for Ureteral peristalsis are
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atypical smooth muscle cells in the proximal ureter (pelviureteric junction) act as primary pacemakers initiate peristalsis, driving urine flow. ICC-like cells (telocytes) assist, not primary supportive. Latent pacemakers dominate if primary fail backup. Distal location fits bladder, not ureter wrong site. Atypical muscle's role distinguishes it, critical for ureteral propulsion, unlike secondary, backup, or misplaced cells.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the statement is true for pelvic floor muscle training?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) treats stress, urge, and mixed incontinence in both genders, all ages strengthens support (stress) and reflex inhibition (urge). Gender restriction is false men benefit (e.g., post-prostatectomy). Age doesn't limit efficacy older adults respond. Urge exclusion is wrong PFMT aids detrusor control. Broad efficacy distinguishes it, key to non-invasive therapy, unlike restrictive claims.
Question 3 of 5
Tumor syndrome strongly associated with genitourinary malignancies is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC/Lynch) strongly links to GU cancers (e.g., ureter, bladder) mismatch repair defects. FAP ties to colon, not GU adenomas. Li-Fraumeni (p53) hits soft tissue, not GU-specific. MEN I (pituitary, pancreas) lacks GU focus endocrine. HNPCC's GU association distinguishes it, critical for urologic tumor risk, unlike colon, broad, or endocrine syndromes.
Question 4 of 5
All of the following are well established risk factors for testis cancer, Except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Black race has lower testicular cancer risk whites predominate, not a factor. Cryptorchidism (undescended testis) increases risk malpositioned germ cells. Family history raises odds genetic link. Germ cell neoplasia in situ is precursor direct cause. Lower black risk distinguishes it, key to epidemiology, unlike established high-risk factors.
Question 5 of 5
A 55 years of old male presented with swelling over mid shaft of penis with occasional hematuria. On evaluation urothelial carcinoma of urethra with involvement of corpus cavernosum was found. No any lymph node involvement. The best first line treatment option for him is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Urethral urothelial carcinoma with cavernosal invasion (T3) but no nodes favors chemoradiotherapy ± surgery organ-sparing, controls local disease. Cystectomy is bladder-focused mismatch. Systemic therapy suits metastasis none here. Partial urethrectomy/penectomy lacks depth control insufficient. Chemoradiotherapy's balance distinguishes it, key to T3 urethral cancer, unlike bladder, metastatic, or limited approaches.