The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepine is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology, benzodiazepines are a class of CNS depressants that work primarily by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is D) Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx. Explanation: A) Dopamine antagonism: Benzodiazepines do not primarily act by antagonizing dopamine receptors. Dopamine antagonism is more characteristic of antipsychotic medications. B) Adenosine antagonism: Adenosine antagonism is not a mechanism of action for benzodiazepines. Adenosine receptors are targeted by caffeine, for example, but not benzodiazepines. C) Opening up of chloride channel: This is a close distractor, but the key mechanism is not just opening the channel but facilitating GABA-mediated chloride influx, which leads to hyperpolarization and inhibition of neuronal activity. Educational Context: Understanding the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is crucial for healthcare professionals as these drugs are commonly used to treat anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and muscle spasms. By facilitating GABA-mediated chloride influx, benzodiazepines enhance the inhibitory effects of GABA, resulting in sedative, anxiolytic, and muscle-relaxant properties. This knowledge is fundamental for safe and effective medication administration and patient care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Anti-diuretic hormone. Opioid analgesics inhibit the release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. ADH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its main function is to regulate the body's water balance by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, thus reducing urine output. Opioid analgesics exert their effects by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system. When opioids bind to these receptors, they inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as substance P, which is involved in pain perception. Additionally, opioids can affect the release of various hormones, including ADH. Regarding the other options: - B) Luteinizing hormone: Opioid analgesics do not directly inhibit the release of luteinizing hormone, which is involved in reproductive functions. - C) Prolactin: Opioid analgesics do not directly inhibit the release of prolactin, a hormone involved in lactation. - D) Somatotropin: Opioid analgesics do not directly inhibit the release of somatotropin (growth hormone), which is involved in growth and metabolism. Understanding the pharmacological effects of opioid analgesics on hormone release is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when managing patients on long-term opioid therapy. This knowledge helps in anticipating and managing potential side effects related to hormonal imbalances and contributes to providing safe and effective patient care.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Perioral tremor. This extra-pyramidal effect seen with antipsychotic agents is also known as rabbit syndrome because of the characteristic rhythmic protrusion and retrusion movements of the lips resembling a rabbit nibbling. Acute dystonia reaction (option A) is characterized by sustained muscle contractions, usually involving the neck, jaw, or tongue, leading to abnormal postures or repetitive movements. Parkinsonian syndrome (option B) presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Tardive dyskinesia (option C) involves involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, and limbs and is a late-appearing side effect of long-term antipsychotic medication use. Understanding the extra-pyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, particularly pharmacists, nurses, and physicians, to monitor patients for adverse drug reactions. Recognizing these side effects early can help in adjusting treatment regimens to minimize discomfort and improve patient outcomes. It also highlights the importance of patient education regarding medication adherence, potential side effects, and the need for regular follow-up with healthcare providers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that acts as a CNS depressant. It is particularly effective in treating tonic-clonic seizures, also known as grand mal seizures, which involve a combination of muscle rigidity and convulsions. Option A, "Tonic-clonic seizures," is the correct answer because Phenobarbitone works by enhancing the activity of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which helps reduce the excessive neuronal activity associated with tonic-clonic seizures. Option B, "Absence seizures," are characterized by brief lapses in consciousness and typically involve a different underlying mechanism compared to tonic-clonic seizures. Phenobarbitone is not the first-line treatment for absence seizures which are better managed with other anti-seizure medications. Option C, "Atonic seizures," involve sudden loss of muscle tone and are also not typically treated with Phenobarbitone as these seizures have different triggers and mechanisms. Option D, "All of the above," is incorrect because Phenobarbitone is not the preferred treatment for all types of generalized seizures. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the mechanisms of action and appropriate use of different anti-seizure medications to provide optimal care for patients with epilepsy and seizure disorders. Understanding the specificity of each drug for different seizure types helps in tailoring treatment plans to individual patient needs, ensuring better outcomes and minimizing side effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer for the question is option A) Chloroprocaine. Chloroprocaine is a short-acting local anesthetic commonly used for procedures requiring a rapid onset and short duration of action, typically lasting between 30 to 60 minutes. Chloroprocaine's short duration of action is due to its rapid metabolism by plasma esterases, making it suitable for procedures where a quick recovery is desired. In contrast, the other options have longer durations of action: B) Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic with a duration of action ranging from 2 to 4 hours. It is often used for procedures requiring prolonged pain relief. C) Lidocaine has an intermediate duration of action, typically lasting around 60 to 90 minutes. It is widely used for various procedures due to its efficacy and safety profile. D) Prilocaine also has an intermediate duration of action, similar to lidocaine, lasting around 60 to 90 minutes. It is commonly used in combination with other local anesthetics for synergistic effects. Understanding the duration of action of different local anesthetics is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those involved in anesthesia and pain management. Choosing the appropriate local anesthetic based on the duration required for a specific procedure is essential to ensure effective pain control and patient safety.