Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the suboccipitofrontal diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is in a deflexed position, with the largest diameter being from the subocciput (back of the head) to the frontal bone (forehead). This allows the head to enter the pelvis in the transverse diameter. A: Mentovertical - This refers to the chin to the top of the head, not the correct diameter for brow presentation. B: Submentobregmatic - This refers to the chin to the bregma, not the correct diameter for brow presentation. D: Occipitalfrontal - This refers to the back of the head to the forehead, not the correct diameter for brow presentation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoproterenol 0.2 to 0.6 mg IV bolus. Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that can worsen graft rejection in heart transplant patients. The appropriate intervention for bradyarrhythmia in posttransplant patients is external pacemaking or pharmacological agents like atropine or epinephrine. Isoproterenol should be avoided due to its potential to stimulate the immune system and increase the risk of rejection. It is crucial to choose interventions that address the bradycardia without compromising the patient's transplant graft.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In True cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. This condition often requires operative delivery (C-section) as a vaginal birth is not possible. Choice D is correct because operative delivery is indeed needed to safely deliver the baby. Choice A is incorrect as not all patients with cephalopelvic disproportion will necessarily require operative delivery. Choice B is also incorrect as the issue cannot generally be overcome during labor due to physical constraints. Choice C is incorrect as operative delivery is usually necessary in cases of true cephalopelvic disproportion to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A HIDA scan. A HIDA scan is the most appropriate imaging study for investigating the likely cause in this case because the patient's symptoms (abdominal pain centered on the right side just under the ribcage, tenderness in the right upper quadrant) are suggestive of a possible gallbladder issue, such as cholecystitis or biliary colic. A HIDA scan is specifically used to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. A: Abdominal radiographs would not provide detailed information about the gallbladder or biliary system, and are not the best choice in this scenario. B: A CT scan of the abdomen with contrast can be helpful in some situations, but it may not provide the specific information needed to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. C: Right upper quadrant ultrasound is a good initial imaging study for evaluating gallbladder disease, but a HIDA scan is more specific for functional assessment of