ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The presenting diameter in brow presentation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the submentobregmatic diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is partially extended, causing the forehead (bregma) to be the presenting part. The submentobregmatic diameter is the distance between the chin (mentum) and the highest point of the forehead (bregma). This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in brow presentation as it is the smallest diameter that must pass through the maternal pelvis. Summary of other choices: B: Suboccipitofrontal - This diameter is not relevant in brow presentation as it involves the back of the head. C: Occipitalfrontal - This diameter is the distance between the back of the head and the forehead, also not relevant in brow presentation. D: Mentovertical - This diameter is the distance between the chin and the vertex of the head, not the forehead.
Question 2 of 9
R. R. is a 61-year-old male patient who presents with a chief complaint of fever and urinary symptoms. He was in his usual state of good health when for no apparent reason he developed pain in his back and perineal region, as well as fever and chills. He presents as septic. He had urinary hesitancy and decreased stream but now reports that he has not passed urine in more than 12 hours. Palpation of the lower abdomen is consistent with bladder distention. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is contraindicated in this circumstance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.
Question 3 of 9
Cord presentation is when the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cord presentation occurs when the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured. This can lead to compression of the cord during labor, affecting fetal oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as it describes cord prolapse, where the cord lies in front of the presenting part before membrane rupture. Option C describes nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the fetal neck. Option D describes cord abruption, where the cord detaches prematurely from the placenta.
Question 4 of 9
Ms. Kweke’s specific management until delivery (obstructed labour):
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immediate caesarean section. In obstructed labor, prompt delivery is crucial to prevent harm to both the mother and the baby. A caesarean section is the most effective and timely intervention to safely deliver the baby and avoid complications such as fetal distress, maternal infection, and uterine rupture. Observation with pain relief (B) may delay necessary intervention, and manual repositioning of the fetus (C) is not sufficient in cases of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because not all options are appropriate in this specific scenario.
Question 5 of 9
What are the benefits of ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth can detect fetal anomalies by visualizing the fetus in real-time. It can also monitor placental health by assessing blood flow and position. Additionally, ultrasound can assess amniotic fluid levels to ensure proper fetal development. Therefore, all the benefits mentioned in choices A, B, and C are valid reasons why ultrasound is essential in monitoring fetal growth.
Question 6 of 9
Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are among the complications of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct: 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. 2. Prolonged vomiting can lead to electrolyte imbalances and nutritional deficiencies. 3. Vitamin B deficiency, specifically thiamine, can result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. 4. Mallory-Weiss syndrome can occur due to repeated retching and vomiting. 5. Therefore, hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to both Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome. Summary: A: Placenta praevia is related to abnormal placental placement, not vomiting. B: Hypertensive disorders are associated with high blood pressure, not vomiting-related complications. C: Vitamin B deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy but is not directly caused by hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 7 of 9
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Cognitive ability is important for decision-making during surgery. 2. Functional status helps assess the patient's ability to recover post-surgery. 3. Competency assessment ensures the patient can consent to surgery. 4. Frailty score predicts surgical outcomes in geriatric patients. 5. Cognitive ability is not typically assessed preoperatively in the ACS/NSQIP guidelines. Summary: - A: Cognitive ability is not typically part of preoperative evaluation. - B: Functional status is important for post-surgery recovery. - C: Competency assessment is crucial for informed consent. - D: Frailty score helps predict surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
Question 8 of 9
How does gestational diabetes impact fetal development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because gestational diabetes can lead to macrosomia, which is excessive fetal growth due to high blood sugar levels in the mother. This occurs as the fetus receives excess glucose from the mother, resulting in increased fat deposition and larger birth weight. Congenital anomalies (B) are not directly caused by gestational diabetes but by genetic or environmental factors. Reduced fetal movements (C) are not a typical effect of gestational diabetes. While gestational diabetes can increase the risk of preterm birth (D), the primary impact on fetal development is macrosomia.
Question 9 of 9
Complications of occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because occipito-posterior position can lead to prolonged labor due to poor fetal positioning, causing maternal back pain. This can result in fetal distress as the baby may have difficulty descending through the birth canal. Postpartum hemorrhage, uterine rupture, fetal death (choices B and C) are not typically associated with occipito-posterior position. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer.