The presenting diameter in brow presentation is

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Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 9

The presenting diameter in brow presentation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the submentobregmatic diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is partially extended, causing the forehead (bregma) to be the presenting part. The submentobregmatic diameter is the distance between the chin (mentum) and the highest point of the forehead (bregma). This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in brow presentation as it is the smallest diameter that must pass through the maternal pelvis. Summary of other choices: B: Suboccipitofrontal - This diameter is not relevant in brow presentation as it involves the back of the head. C: Occipitalfrontal - This diameter is the distance between the back of the head and the forehead, also not relevant in brow presentation. D: Mentovertical - This diameter is the distance between the chin and the vertex of the head, not the forehead.

Question 2 of 9

A patient being monitored post-heart transplant suffers a bradyarrhythmia. The AGACNP knows that which of the following medications is not indicated as part of emergency intervention for bradycardic abnormalities in a posttransplant patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoproterenol 0.2 to 0.6 mg IV bolus. Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that can worsen graft rejection in heart transplant patients. The appropriate intervention for bradyarrhythmia in posttransplant patients is external pacemaking or pharmacological agents like atropine or epinephrine. Isoproterenol should be avoided due to its potential to stimulate the immune system and increase the risk of rejection. It is crucial to choose interventions that address the bradycardia without compromising the patient's transplant graft.

Question 3 of 9

Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.

Question 4 of 9

A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.

Question 5 of 9

Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an excessive amount of amniotic fluid exceeding

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000 to 3000 ml. This is because amniotic fluid serves important functions in protecting the fetus and aiding in fetal movements. Having an excessively high volume can lead to complications such as preterm labor, fetal malpresentation, and placental abruption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not fall within the range typically used to diagnose polyhydramnios. A: 1500 ml and C: 1900 ml are below the threshold, while B: 2500 ml is at the lower end but still not exceeding the diagnostic range for polyhydramnios.

Question 6 of 9

According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Cognitive ability is important for decision-making during surgery. 2. Functional status helps assess the patient's ability to recover post-surgery. 3. Competency assessment ensures the patient can consent to surgery. 4. Frailty score predicts surgical outcomes in geriatric patients. 5. Cognitive ability is not typically assessed preoperatively in the ACS/NSQIP guidelines. Summary: - A: Cognitive ability is not typically part of preoperative evaluation. - B: Functional status is important for post-surgery recovery. - C: Competency assessment is crucial for informed consent. - D: Frailty score helps predict surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.

Question 7 of 9

Ms. Kweke’s specific management until delivery (obstructed labour):

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immediate caesarean section. In obstructed labor, prompt delivery is crucial to prevent harm to both the mother and the baby. A caesarean section is the most effective and timely intervention to safely deliver the baby and avoid complications such as fetal distress, maternal infection, and uterine rupture. Observation with pain relief (B) may delay necessary intervention, and manual repositioning of the fetus (C) is not sufficient in cases of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because not all options are appropriate in this specific scenario.

Question 8 of 9

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

Question 9 of 9

The presenting diameter in brow presentation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the submentobregmatic diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is partially extended, causing the forehead (bregma) to be the presenting part. The submentobregmatic diameter is the distance between the chin (mentum) and the highest point of the forehead (bregma). This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in brow presentation as it is the smallest diameter that must pass through the maternal pelvis. Summary of other choices: B: Suboccipitofrontal - This diameter is not relevant in brow presentation as it involves the back of the head. C: Occipitalfrontal - This diameter is the distance between the back of the head and the forehead, also not relevant in brow presentation. D: Mentovertical - This diameter is the distance between the chin and the vertex of the head, not the forehead.

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