ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The presence of specific antibodies in the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination is visualized by the;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.
Question 2 of 9
A smear from a sore throat revealed rod-shaped bacteria with polar granules. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely causative agent is Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Step 1: Presence of rod-shaped bacteria indicates a bacillus. Step 2: Polar granules suggest metachromatic granules seen in C. diphtheriae. Step 3: C. diphtheriae causes diphtheria, which presents with sore throat. Summary: B is incorrect as S. pneumoniae is a cocci, not a bacillus. C is incorrect as H. influenzae is a pleomorphic coccobacillus. D is incorrect as K. pneumoniae is a large, encapsulated bacillus.
Question 3 of 9
A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea. The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons: B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei. C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei. D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei. Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,
Question 4 of 9
Fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.5 to 4.0 billion years. Prokaryotic fossils date back to around 3.5 to 4.0 billion years ago, based on scientific evidence. This timeframe aligns with the earliest known evidence of life on Earth. Choices A, C, and D have incorrect timelines that do not correspond to the established age range of prokaryotic fossils. Choice A is too broad and includes a range that extends beyond the known fossil record. Choices C and D have much younger timelines, which do not match the historical evidence of prokaryotic life dating back billions of years.
Question 5 of 9
When growing in artificial media, the number of bacteria increases in geometric progression via:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Logarithmic phase. During this phase, bacteria multiply exponentially due to abundant nutrients and favorable conditions. The growth is rapid and follows a geometric progression. In contrast, the Death phase (choice B) occurs when nutrients are depleted, leading to a decline in bacterial numbers. The Stationary phase (choice C) is when growth equals death rates, resulting in a stable population size. Choice D is incorrect because the Logarithmic phase accurately describes the exponential growth pattern of bacteria in artificial media.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 7 of 9
The one-way transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell-to-cell contact is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conjugation involves direct cell-to-cell contact for the transfer of genetic material, typically through a pilus. This process is well-documented in bacterial genetics. Transformation (A) involves uptake of free DNA from the environment. Transduction (B) is genetic transfer by a viral vector. Replication (C) is the process of producing identical copies of DNA or RNA. Therefore, the correct answer is D (conjugation) as it specifically refers to the one-way transfer of genetic material through direct cell-to-cell contact.
Question 8 of 9
The cytoplasmic membrane of the eukaryotes, in contrast to the one of prokaryotes, has:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: sterols. Eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes contain sterols, such as cholesterol, which provide stability and regulate fluidity. This is a key characteristic that distinguishes them from prokaryotic membranes. Cellulose (A) is a component of plant cell walls, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Starch (B) is a carbohydrate used for energy storage in plants. Chitin (C) is a component of fungal cell walls and arthropod exoskeletons, not found in eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.