ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The presence of specific antibodies in the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination is visualized by the;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.
Question 2 of 9
Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two equal parts. Bacteria reproduce through binary fission, splitting into two identical daughter cells. Viruses are not considered living organisms and reproduce by infecting host cells. Fungi reproduce through spores or sexual reproduction. Helminths are parasitic worms that reproduce sexually. Therefore, the correct answer is B, bacteria, as they specifically utilize binary fission for reproduction.
Question 3 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. The presence of a capsule helps the bacterium evade the immune system and contributes to its virulence. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not typically have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is associated with meningitis, not pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive bacterium, but it does not typically present as diplococci with a capsule in a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient.
Question 4 of 9
During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby's oral mucosa and tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most often in children of this age, namely:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.
Question 5 of 9
The growth phase in which bacteria adapt to the conditions of cultivation is called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lag phase. During the lag phase, bacteria adapt to the new environment before starting to grow and divide. This phase is characterized by a period of low growth as bacteria adjust their metabolism to the available nutrients. The stationary phase (A) is when growth rate equals death rate, the log phase (B) is rapid exponential growth, and the death phase (D) is when cells start to die due to nutrient depletion or accumulation of waste products. Thus, the lag phase is the initial phase where bacteria prepare for growth, making it the correct answer.
Question 6 of 9
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rickettsia rickettsii. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a bacterium transmitted by ticks. This pathogen primarily affects the endothelial cells of blood vessels, leading to vasculitis. Borrelia burgdorferi (choice A) causes Lyme disease, not Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) causes epidemic typhus, and Ehrlichia chaffeensis (choice D) causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis, both of which are distinct from Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the specific etiology of the disease.
Question 7 of 9
Legionella pneumophila is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Legionella pneumophila is a Gram-negative coccobacillus. It is not a coccus (round shape), spiral bacterium, or Gram-positive coccobacillus. The correct answer is C because Legionella pneumophila has a characteristic coccobacillary shape and stains Gram-negative due to its cell wall composition. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the morphology or staining characteristics of Legionella pneumophila.
Question 8 of 9
When growing in artificial media, the number of bacteria increases in geometric progression via:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Logarithmic phase. During this phase, bacteria multiply exponentially due to abundant nutrients and favorable conditions. The growth is rapid and follows a geometric progression. In contrast, the Death phase (choice B) occurs when nutrients are depleted, leading to a decline in bacterial numbers. The Stationary phase (choice C) is when growth equals death rates, resulting in a stable population size. Choice D is incorrect because the Logarithmic phase accurately describes the exponential growth pattern of bacteria in artificial media.
Question 9 of 9
What drug is more advisable for the patient with amebic dysentery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery as it effectively targets the protozoa causing the infection. It has good tissue penetration and high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Pyrantel (B) is used for nematode infections, not amebiasis. Levamisole (C) is an anthelmintic for roundworms and not effective against amoebas. Bicillin-5 (D) is a penicillin antibiotic, which is not indicated for treating amebic dysentery.