ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The presence of flagella in bacterial cell represents:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of flagella in a bacterial cell represents the H-antigen. Flagella are protein structures on the cell surface that play a role in bacterial motility. The H-antigen refers to the flagellar antigen, which is involved in immune responses and bacterial identification. Option A is correct because flagella are specifically associated with the H-antigen. Summarily, choices B and C are incorrect because the O-antigen and K-antigen are associated with lipopolysaccharide and capsule antigens, respectively, not flagella. Option D is incorrect as well because the correct association is with the H-antigen.
Question 2 of 5
The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.
Question 3 of 5
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
The biosafety level necessary in water testing facilities is level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1. Water testing facilities typically handle low-risk microorganisms, hence requiring Biosafety Level 1. BSL 1 is suitable for working with well-characterized agents not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults. BSL 2 is for moderate-risk agents, BSL 3 for high-risk agents, and BSL 4 for dangerous pathogens. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for water testing facilities due to the low risk involved in handling the microorganisms found in water samples.
Question 5 of 5
Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sporadic disease. Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is considered sporadic because it occurs in a random and isolated manner, with no clear pattern or connection between cases. It is not classified as an epidemic (A) because it does not involve a sudden increase in the number of cases within a specific population. It is also not endemic (C) as endemic diseases are constantly present in a particular region or population. Lastly, it is not a pandemic (D) which refers to a global outbreak affecting a large number of people across different countries.