ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The presence of flagella in bacterial cell represents:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of flagella in a bacterial cell represents the H-antigen. Flagella are protein structures on the cell surface that play a role in bacterial motility. The H-antigen refers to the flagellar antigen, which is involved in immune responses and bacterial identification. Option A is correct because flagella are specifically associated with the H-antigen. Summarily, choices B and C are incorrect because the O-antigen and K-antigen are associated with lipopolysaccharide and capsule antigens, respectively, not flagella. Option D is incorrect as well because the correct association is with the H-antigen.
Question 2 of 9
Hepatitis B infection may present with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hepatitis B infection can present with jaundice due to liver inflammation, elevated serum aminotransferase levels due to liver damage, and sometimes no symptoms in the acute phase. This comprehensive presentation covers the spectrum of possible clinical manifestations of hepatitis B infection. Choices A and B are correct as they are common manifestations of hepatitis B infection. Choice C is incorrect as hepatitis B infection can indeed present with symptoms, making option D the most appropriate choice.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following statements for measles is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection. Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus. Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics. Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.
Question 5 of 9
Impression smear of mucosa biopsy material has been obtained from a patient with peptic ulcer disease of the stomach. Gram-negative arcuate bent microorganisms were detected, urease activity test was positive. What microorganisms were detected in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter. Helicobacter pylori is the main causative agent of peptic ulcer disease and is characterized by its gram-negative arcuate bent shape and positive urease activity. Helicobacter pylori specifically colonizes the stomach mucosa and is associated with various gastrointestinal disorders. Spirochetes (choice B), spirilla (choice C), and Leptospira (choice D) are not typically associated with peptic ulcer disease or stomach mucosa infections, making them incorrect choices in this context.
Question 6 of 9
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.
Question 8 of 9
A relationship in which two organisms benefit is referred to as __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: mutualism. In mutualism, both organisms benefit from the relationship. This is because they provide each other with resources or services that help both parties. In contrast, commensalism (A) is a relationship where one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed. Parasitism (C) is a relationship where one organism benefits at the expense of the other. Competition (D) is a relationship where both organisms are negatively affected as they compete for limited resources. Therefore, mutualism is the correct answer as it describes a mutually beneficial relationship between two organisms.
Question 9 of 9
All the statements about Pseudomonas aeruginosa are correct, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: It is non-motile and non-spore forming. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is motile due to its flagella and is non-spore forming. A is correct because it is a Gram-negative bacterium, and B is correct as it is oxidase-positive. D is incorrect because C is not true.