ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The presence of anemia is characterized by a/an:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Anemia is a condition where there is a decrease in the concentration of red blood cells. 2. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues, so a decrease in their concentration leads to reduced oxygen delivery. 3. This decrease in red blood cell concentration can be measured through a decrease in hematocrit levels. 4. Choices A and B are incorrect because anemia involves a decrease, not an increase, in red blood cells and hemoglobin. 5. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "decreased blood count cells," which is not a specific term related to anemia. Summary: The correct answer is C because anemia is characterized by a decrease in the concentration of red blood cells, leading to reduced oxygen delivery, while the other choices are incorrect due to inaccuracies in describing anemia.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is working with a dying client and his family. Which communication technique is most important to use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active listening. Active listening is crucial when working with a dying client and their family as it involves fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said. This technique helps the nurse show empathy, build trust, and provide emotional support. By actively listening, the nurse can better understand the client's needs and concerns, which is essential in end-of-life care. Reflection (A) involves paraphrasing what the client said, which may not always be appropriate in this sensitive situation. Clarification (B) and Interpretation (C) involve adding one's own understanding or perspective, which can be intrusive and may not align with the client's feelings or beliefs.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.
Question 4 of 9
Arthur, a 66-year old client for pneumonia has a temperature ranging from 39° to 40° C with periods of diaphoresis. Which of the following interventions by Nurse Carlos would be a priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.
Question 5 of 9
What is the primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process (step 3) is to design a plan of care for and with the client. This involves setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals to address the client's health problems. By involving the client in the planning process, it promotes client autonomy and ensures that the plan is tailored to their individual needs and preferences. Options A and B focus on data collection and analysis, which are steps 1 and 2 of the nursing process. Option C refers to nursing diagnosis, which is part of step 2 (diagnosis). Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it pertains to the specific purpose of the outcome identification and planning step.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff diets does the nurse recommend for clients with hypertension under the physicians guidance?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The DASH diet is specifically designed to help lower blood pressure, making it the most appropriate choice for clients with hypertension. Step 2: The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy, all of which are beneficial for managing hypertension. Step 3: The diet also limits sodium intake, which is crucial for controlling blood pressure. Step 4: The other options (A, B, and C) do not have the same evidence-based focus on hypertension management and may not be as effective in lowering blood pressure.
Question 7 of 9
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate" is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems involve issues that require both nursing and medical interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses focus on the nurse's role in addressing the patient's health issues. Therefore, the nurse should revise the collaborative problem part to accurately reflect the collaborative aspect of the patient's care. Etiology (A), nursing diagnosis (B), and defining characteristic (D) are not the parts of the diagnostic statement that need revision in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.