The pregnant patient tells the nurse that her prescribed medication is not as effective as it was before her pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?

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Advanced Pharmacology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The pregnant patient tells the nurse that her prescribed medication is not as effective as it was before her pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pregnancy increases blood volume (50% more), diluting drugs, reducing efficacy-e.g., lower concentration per unit volume, a pharmacokinetic shift. Asking about administration checks adherence, not cause. Baby receiving drug is unlikely-placental transfer varies. Expiration is a guess, not tied to pregnancy. Blood volume explains the change, addressing her concern.

Question 2 of 5

A 48-year-old woman pricks her finger on a rose bush while pruning. A few days later, she develops small, red lesions near the wound and a red track ascending her hand toward her trunk. Her doctor prescribes itraconazole for the sporotrichosis. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sporotrichosis, from Sporothrix schenckii, requires antifungals like itraconazole. Option , inhibiting lanosterol to ergosterol conversion, is correct-itraconazole blocks 14-α-demethylase, disrupting fungal membrane synthesis. Option , pore formation, is amphotericin B's mechanism. Option , microtubule disruption, is griseofulvin's. Option , squalene monooxygenase inhibition, is terbinafine's. Option (E), 5-FU conversion, is flucytosine's. Itraconazole's ergosterol inhibition effectively treats this subcutaneous infection, targeting fungal viability.

Question 3 of 5

A local municipality is alerted that low doses of carbon tetrachloride have been dumped into the drinking water. A public health alert is transmitted to all residents of this town. Which of the following signs and symptoms should these residents be aware of?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following agents exerts its therapeutic effect in multiple sclerosis via potassium channel blockade?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Dalfampridine treats MS by blocking potassium channels in demyelinated axons, enhancing nerve conduction and improving walking ability. Exposed potassium channels in MS leak current, impairing signal propagation; dalfampridine's blockade restores function. Donepezil boosts acetylcholine for Alzheimer's. Riluzole reduces glutamate in ALS. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, manages Parkinson's. Dalfampridine's unique potassium channel action directly addresses MS's neurological deficit, supported by clinical evidence, making it the correct agent here.

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