ATI RN
Advanced Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The pregnant patient tells the nurse that her prescribed medication is not as effective as it was before her pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy increases blood volume (50% more), diluting drugs, reducing efficacy-e.g., lower concentration per unit volume, a pharmacokinetic shift. Asking about administration checks adherence, not cause. Baby receiving drug is unlikely-placental transfer varies. Expiration is a guess, not tied to pregnancy. Blood volume explains the change, addressing her concern.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is not an opioid or NSAID. It is a pain reliever and fever reducer, but it works in a different way compared to opioids and NSAIDs. Unlike opioids, acetaminophen does not have the same risk of physical dependence or addiction. And unlike NSAIDs, acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is often used for mild to moderate pain relief and as a fever reducer. Be cautious when taking acetaminophen, as high doses can be harmful to the liver.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to inform the patient that the medication, likely an antiarrhythmic agent such as digoxin immune fab (Digibind), helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm caused by digoxin toxicity to a more normal rhythm. This explanation provides a clear understanding of why the medication is being administered in cases of digoxin toxicity. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the purpose of the medication and how it will help manage the symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
Question 4 of 9
What is a side effect of Heparin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A common side effect of Heparin, which is an anticoagulant medication, is the risk of bleeding. Heparin works by preventing the formation of blood clots, which can lead to a bleeding risk as it inhibits the normal clotting process. Patients taking Heparin should be monitored closely for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, or blood in the urine or stools. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients on Heparin therapy and adjust the dosage as needed to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding.
Question 5 of 9
The specificity of the adrenergic blocking agents allows the clinician to select a drug to do what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This specificity allows the clinician to select a drug that will have the desired therapeutic effects without the undesired effects that occur when the entire sympathetic nervous system is blocked. In general, however, the specificity of adrenergic blocking agents depends on the concentration of drug in the body. Most specificity is lost with higher serum drug levels. The nurse should understand the importance of drug specificity to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 6 of 9
A 48-year-old woman pricks her finger on a rose bush while pruning. A few days later, she develops small, red lesions near the wound and a red track ascending her hand toward her trunk. Her doctor prescribes itraconazole for the sporotrichosis. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sporotrichosis, from Sporothrix schenckii, requires antifungals like itraconazole. Option , inhibiting lanosterol to ergosterol conversion, is correct-itraconazole blocks 14-α-demethylase, disrupting fungal membrane synthesis. Option , pore formation, is amphotericin B's mechanism. Option , microtubule disruption, is griseofulvin's. Option , squalene monooxygenase inhibition, is terbinafine's. Option (E), 5-FU conversion, is flucytosine's. Itraconazole's ergosterol inhibition effectively treats this subcutaneous infection, targeting fungal viability.
Question 7 of 9
Acyclovir has been ordered for a patient with genital herpes. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, so monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels is essential. Hypertension is not a common side effect of acyclovir. Intravenous acyclovir should be administered over at least 1 hour to prevent renal toxicity. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent crystalluria and nephrotoxicity.
Question 8 of 9
A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 9 of 9
The pregnant patient tells the nurse that her prescribed medication is not as effective as it was before her pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy increases blood volume (50% more), diluting drugs, reducing efficacy-e.g., lower concentration per unit volume, a pharmacokinetic shift. Asking about administration checks adherence, not cause. Baby receiving drug is unlikely-placental transfer varies. Expiration is a guess, not tied to pregnancy. Blood volume explains the change, addressing her concern.