The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?

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Chapter 11 Cardiovascular Drugs Test Questions Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are classic indicators of psychosis in schizophrenia. Monitoring improvements in these symptoms is crucial to evaluating the effectiveness of the antipsychotic medication. Delusions involve false beliefs, such as the patient talking to himself or believing others will harm him, while hallucinations involve sensory perceptions that are not real. Therefore, monitoring these symptoms will help assess the medication's impact on reducing the patient's psychotic symptoms. Incorrect choices: B: Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene - These symptoms are more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, which may not improve as rapidly or significantly with antipsychotic medication. C: Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia - These symptoms are also negative symptoms and may not directly reflect the improvement in psychotic symptoms targeted by haloperidol. D: Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks - These symptoms are not specific to delusions or hallucinations, which are the primary

Question 2 of 5

__________ is a side effect that can occur while a client is taking an antipsychotic medication, causing muscle rigidity, high fever, unstable vital signs, confusion, and agitation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). NMS is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, unstable vital signs, confusion, and agitation. This is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Rationale: 1. Muscle rigidity, high fever, and unstable vital signs are hallmark symptoms of NMS. 2. Confusion and agitation are also common in individuals experiencing NMS. 3. NMS is a medical emergency that can lead to serious complications if not treated promptly. 4. The other choices, A: Drug-induced parkinsonism, C: Tardive dyskinesia, and D: Dystonia, do not present with the same constellation of symptoms as NMS and are unrelated to the life-threatening nature of NMS.

Question 3 of 5

A family member asks a mental health nurse, “I am reading a lot of information about gene therapy in the news lately. Will gene therapy be able to help my spouse, who has schizophrenia?” Which response by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because gene therapy is indeed still an experimental field, especially in the context of treating mental health disorders like schizophrenia. This is due to the complex nature of mental health conditions and the need for more research to fully understand how gene therapy can effectively target and treat such disorders. Choice A is incorrect because the popularity of gene therapy for schizophrenia is not dependent on geographical location. Choice B is incorrect as the high cost is not the primary reason why gene therapy is not widely used for schizophrenia. Choice D is incorrect as it acknowledges the promise of gene therapy for schizophrenia but highlights the lack of sufficient large-scale studies, which further supports the notion that gene therapy is not yet a standard treatment for the condition.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is recovering from a minor automobile accident that occurred 1 week ago. He is taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) for muscular pain and goes to physical therapy three times a week. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for him?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium. The rationale is as follows: 1. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, dizziness, and blurred vision, leading to decreased sensorium. 2. The patient is undergoing physical therapy, which may further increase the risk of falls due to potential muscle weakness or fatigue. 3. The combination of medication, therapy, and recent accident increases the risk of falls. 4. Nursing diagnosis should focus on preventing harm, making "Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium" the most appropriate choice. Summary: B: Risk for addiction is not relevant as the patient is using the medication as prescribed for acute pain. C: Decreased fluid volume is not a common side effect of cyclobenzaprine. D: Disturbed sleep pattern is a potential side effect, but the risk of falls due to decreased sensorium is a higher priority in this case.

Question 5 of 5

A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after 1 or 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Classic angina. This type of angina is characterized by chest pain occurring predictably with exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. In this case, the golfer experiences pain at the end of games, consistent with exertional angina. Variant angina (B) occurs at rest due to coronary artery spasm. Unstable angina (C) is characterized by chest pain at rest that is new or changing in pattern. Prinzmetal's angina (D) is also due to coronary artery spasm but typically occurs at rest and is not necessarily related to exertion.

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