Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” This instruction is correct because glipizide is an oral antidiabetic agent that works best when taken before meals to help control blood glucose levels. Taking it before meals allows the medication to coincide with the body's natural insulin response to food intake, thereby improving its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because glipizide does not typically cause low serum sodium levels, so there is no need for monthly sodium level checks. Choice C is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue monitoring their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to ensure the medication is working effectively. Choice D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal will not optimize its effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the patient for abnormal bleeding is an appropriate action to monitor for potential complications of warfarin therapy. This aligns with the nursing role in assessing and monitoring patient responses to treatment. B is incorrect as increasing warfarin dose without physician order can lead to adverse effects. C is incorrect as altering the dose without medical advice can be dangerous. D is incorrect as administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of warfarin, which is used to prevent blood clotting.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: administer morphine sulfate as ordered. This is the appropriate nursing intervention because acute abdominal pain is a common symptom of acute pancreatitis, and morphine sulfate is a commonly used medication to relieve severe abdominal pain. Administering morphine sulfate will help alleviate Aling Loida's discomfort and improve her overall well-being. Choice B is incorrect because obtaining daily weights is not directly related to managing acute abdominal pain in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining Aling Loida on a high calorie, high protein diet may exacerbate her symptoms due to the acute pancreatitis. Choice D is incorrect as placing her on a supine position may not address the underlying cause of the abdominal pain and could potentially worsen her condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Rationale: During a spinal block, the anesthesiologist injects anesthesia into the subarachnoid space, which contains CSF. Proper positioning ensures that the anesthesia stays in place and prevents leakage of CSF, which could lead to complications such as post-dural puncture headache. Incorrect choices: A: To prevent confusion - Irrelevant to the procedure. C: To prevent seizures leakage - Seizures are not a concern with spinal blocks. D: To prevent cardiac arrhythmias - Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly related to spinal blocks.