Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The physician prescribes decongestant intranasal spray. The nurse instructs the client on the proper use of the spray. Which of the following procedures is the CORRECT method?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tilt the head slightly forward and angle the bottle toward the side of the nostril. This method allows for proper administration of the spray into the nasal passage, ensuring effective delivery of the medication. Tilted head helps direct the spray towards the nasal cavity without causing discomfort or leakage. It also helps prevent the medication from dripping down the back of the throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Finishing instillation in one nostril before moving to the other can lead to uneven distribution of medication and reduced effectiveness. B: Inhaling quickly may cause irritation and discomfort to the mucous membranes due to the forceful intake of the spray. C: Blowing the nose after spraying can expel the medication before it has a chance to be absorbed, decreasing its efficacy.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Central retinal artery occlusion. This condition presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, cherry-red spot at the macula due to lack of blood flow, and attenuated retinal vessels. The cherry-red spot is due to the transparency of the fovea when there is ischemia in the surrounding retina. Central retinal vein occlusion (B) presents with sudden vision loss accompanied by retinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins. Retinal detachment (C) typically presents with sudden flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like visual field defect. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (D) presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with a history of multiple myeloma demonstrates hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.

Question 4 of 5

A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of uterine inertia, with weak and irregular contractions contributing to slow cervical dilation. What nursing intervention should be implemented to address this abnormal labor pattern?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In cases of uterine inertia, where weak and irregular contractions are causing slow cervical dilation during labor, administering intravenous oxytocin can help augment contractions and stimulate more effective progress. Oxytocin is a hormone that naturally stimulates uterine contractions and is commonly used in clinical settings to induce or enhance labor. By increasing the strength and frequency of contractions, oxytocin can help address uterine inertia and promote efficient cervical dilation to facilitate the progress of labor. It is important to monitor the response to oxytocin carefully to avoid complications such as hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can lead to fetal distress.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.

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