ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The physician orders penicillin for a female client who has a sinus infection. What is a priority question to ask the client prior to administering the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is generally safe (Category B) but requires pregnancy status clarification before administration. Pregnancy alters drug metabolism and dosing, and while penicillin poses minimal fetal risk, confirming status ensures no hypersensitivity or rare contraindications are overlooked, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety. Future pregnancy plans are less immediate, affecting long-term considerations, not current use. Breastfeeding matters due to minimal excretion in milk, but it's secondary to current pregnancy. Birth control interaction is negligible with penicillin, unlike other antibiotics. Asking 'Are you pregnant?' addresses the most urgent safety concern, aligning with nursing's role in preventing adverse outcomes, making A the priority question before initiating therapy.
Question 2 of 5
A 36-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a one-car motor vehicle accident where his car struck a telephone pole. He is a known chronic alcoholic. He smells alcohol on his breath, and his blood alcohol level is 300 mg/dL. Which of the following treatments should be given to him if he goes into alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal in a chronic alcoholic (300 mg/dL) requires lorazepam . This benzodiazepine mimics alcohol's GABA enhancement, preventing seizures and agitation. Buspirone treats anxiety, not withdrawal. Pentobarbital is excessive. Phenytoin targets seizures alone. Saline (E) supports but doesn't treat. Lorazepam's safety is key.
Question 3 of 5
A 52-year-old man with asthma treated with a β2 agonist via inhaler has been having difficulty with therapy because of persistent changes in blood pressure, nausea, vomiting, and hypomagnesemia. Which of the following medications would be best for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: β2-agonist side effects (BP changes, nausea, hypomagnesemia) suggest overuse. Ipratropium , an anticholinergic bronchodilator, avoids these. Options , , persist with β2-agonists, risking side effects. Epinephrine (E) worsens them. Ipratropium's different mechanism improves asthma control safely.
Question 4 of 5
An otherwise healthy 78-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 168/80 at a routine check, and similar pressures are confirmed on three separate occasions despite adhering to dietary advice. Investigations including an ECG and creatinine/electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systolic hypertension (168 mmHg) in the elderly increases cardiovascular risk, despite normal diastolic (80 mmHg). Echo isn't first-line without organ damage signs (normal ECG). Reassurance ignores systolic risk; treatment is indicated (>160 mmHg). Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is less preferred initially due to hypotension risk. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is effective, but amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is most appropriate per guidelines (e.g., NICE) for isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly, offering vascular protection and tolerability. Its efficacy reduces stroke and MI risk, critical at this age.
Question 5 of 5
Ingestion of methanol in wood spirits would cause which of the following to happen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Methanol, a toxic alcohol, is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into formaldehyde, then by aldehyde dehydrogenase into formic acid, causing severe metabolic acidosis and blindness via optic nerve damage. This initial step—formation of formaldehyde—is the critical toxic event, distinguishing methanol poisoning from ethanol's safer metabolism. Nephrotoxicity isn't primary; formic acid affects mitochondria and eyes more. Hypotension and vomiting occur secondary to acidosis but aren't the defining process. Glycolic acid is a metabolite of ethylene glycol, not methanol. Methanol inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase minimally; its danger lies in metabolite accumulation. Formaldehyde production initiates the cascade, making it the most direct and accurate consequence of methanol ingestion.