The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is commonly used in the treatment of bladder cancer. It works by stimulating the immune system to attack and destroy cancer cells in the bladder. One of the common side effects of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This can occur due to irritation of the bladder lining by the BCG solution, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware of what to expect during treatment. A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not commonly associated with the formation of renal calculi. C: Delayed ejaculation - Delayed ejaculation is not a common side effect of BCG therapy. D: Impotence - Impotence is not a common side effect of BCG therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking a walk outside. Patients with lymphoma have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. Walking outside exposes them to various environmental pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Going to church (A) and cleaning the house (B) can be done in controlled environments, while watching television (D) does not involve exposure to external pathogens like going for a walk outside does. Therefore, taking a walk outside poses the highest risk for infection among the given activities.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Parkinson's disease is characterized by bradykinesia, tremor, and muscle rigidity. Bradykinesia refers to slowness of movement, tremor involves involuntary shaking, and muscle rigidity causes stiffness and resistance to movement. These three symptoms are commonly known as the classic triad of Parkinson's disease. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" (D) is the correct choice as it encompasses all the key features of Parkinson's disease. Choices A, B, and C individually are incorrect because they do not fully capture the comprehensive presentation of symptoms in Parkinson's disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting with a broad assessment of the surgical dressing, which is a general observation, before moving on to more specific details. This approach allows the nurse to gather comprehensive information systematically. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns involves assessing a patient's health across several categories, not specifically related to wound care. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's physical activity and exercise routines, not the wound dressing. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health issues, rather than starting with a general observation like the appearance of a surgical dressing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. Fractures are the primary complication of osteoporosis due to decreased bone density. Increased trabeculae (A) is incorrect as osteoporosis leads to decreased bone density, not increased. Poor posture (B) may be a result of osteoporosis but is not its primary complication. Chronic pain (C) can occur with osteoporosis but is not as directly linked as fractures.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Autoimmune disorders include connective tissue (collagen) disorders. Rationale: Autoimmune disorders involve the immune system mistakenly attacking healthy cells and tissues in the body, which can lead to various conditions, including connective tissue disorders like rheumatoid arthritis. Providing this information to the client and family is crucial for understanding the nature of autoimmune disorders and the potential impact on the body. Summary of other choices: A: False-negative or false-positive serologic tests can occur in autoimmune disorders, so this statement is not specific enough to be the most appropriate information to provide. B: Advanced medical interventions can manage symptoms but not cure autoimmune disorders, making this statement inaccurate and misleading. D: Autoimmune disorders can present with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose, but this statement does not address the specific link between autoimmune disorders and connective tissue disorders.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” This instruction is correct because glipizide is an oral antidiabetic agent that works best when taken before meals to help control blood glucose levels. Taking it before meals allows the medication to coincide with the body's natural insulin response to food intake, thereby improving its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because glipizide does not typically cause low serum sodium levels, so there is no need for monthly sodium level checks. Choice C is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue monitoring their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to ensure the medication is working effectively. Choice D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal will not optimize its effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A painless mass in the breast. This is the primary sign of breast cancer because most breast cancers present as painless lumps or masses. This is due to the abnormal growth of cells forming a tumor. Other choices (A, B, C) are also signs of breast cancer, but they are not as common or primary as the presence of a painless mass. A bloody discharge from the nipple (A) can be a sign of a benign condition or cancer, but it is not the most common presentation. Nipple retraction (B) and dimpling of the skin over the lesion (C) can also be signs of breast cancer, but they usually occur in later stages of the disease. Therefore, the presence of a painless mass in the breast is the primary sign that should raise suspicion for breast cancer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.