ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
The physician orders cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) for the client. The nurse instructs the client that the most effective administration schedule is ________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) is a mast cell stabilizer that is commonly used to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as sneezing, itching, and congestion. It works best when used before exposure to allergens. The most effective administration schedule for nasal crom is to start using it just after allergy symptoms begin, with a dose of twice-a-day. This helps to prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances from mast cells, thereby reducing allergic symptoms. Using nasal crom in this way can help provide relief and improve the overall management of allergic rhinitis.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of saliva, which aids in lubricating the oral cavity and initiating the digestion of carbohydrates?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The salivary glands are responsible for the production of saliva, which aids in lubricating the oral cavity and initiating the digestion of carbohydrates. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the digestive process by breaking down carbohydrates into simpler sugars. The liver is involved in the production of bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which is released into the small intestine. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
Question 3 of 9
The patient asks you about goiter. You describe this disorder as ___________-.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Goiter is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland. The most common cause of goiter worldwide is iodine deficiency, which is required for the production of thyroid hormones. When there is insufficient iodine intake, the thyroid gland enlarges in an attempt to produce more hormones, leading to the development of goiter. While other factors can also contribute to the development of goiter, such as autoimmune diseases and certain medications, the primary cause associated with the condition is an iodine-deficient diet.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite often found in contaminated water sources. This parasite is known to cause watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea in infected individuals. The presence of oocysts in the stool sample is characteristic of Cryptosporidium infection. Other parasitic infections may present with similar symptoms, but in this case, the most likely culprit based on the exposure history and laboratory findings is Cryptosporidium parvum.
Question 5 of 9
What condition is NOT likely to developing Sherry?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sherry is a type of fortified wine produced in Spain. It is not associated with the development of hyperkalemia, which is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia is commonly caused by kidney dysfunction, certain medications, or excessive intake of potassium-rich foods. Drinking Sherry is not likely to cause hyperkalemia. On the other hand, Sherry consumption can potentially contribute to tooth decay, gastric ulcers, and rectal bleeding due to its acidity and alcohol content.
Question 6 of 9
Radical abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Radical abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus, ovaries, ligaments (including round ligaments and uterosacral ligaments), and fallopian tubes. This extensive procedure is typically done for cases of invasive gynecologic cancers, most commonly cervical or ovarian cancer. The goal of radical hysterectomy is to remove as much of the cancerous tissue as possible to improve the chances of successful treatment and reduce the risk of cancer recurrence.
Question 7 of 9
Nurses should have knowledge about professional organization. Which of t he following is the accredited professional organization of nurses?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Philippine Nurses Association, Inc. (PNA) is the accredited professional organization of nurses in the Philippines. PNA is recognized as the official organization of all registered nurses in the country, dedicated to fostering high standards of nursing practice, education, and professional growth. It plays a key role in advocating for the rights and welfare of nurses, as well as promoting the advancement of the nursing profession in the Philippines. Membership in the PNA provides nurses with access to valuable resources, networking opportunities, and support for continuous professional development.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption and formation, resulting in bone thinning and increased risk of fractures?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption (breakdown of bone tissue) and bone formation, leading to bone thinning and increased risk of fractures. In osteoporosis, bones become weak and porous, making them more prone to fractures even with minor trauma. This condition is common in postmenopausal women and older individuals. Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender, family history, lack of physical activity, low calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications. Treatment typically involves lifestyle modifications, including adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, weight-bearing exercises, and sometimes medication to help slow down bone loss and reduce fracture risk. Early detection and management of osteoporosis are crucial to prevent fractures and maintain bone health.
Question 9 of 9
During the surgical procedure, the nurse notices a break in sterile technique by a member of the surgical team. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to inform the surgeon immediately and request corrective action. Maintaining a sterile field during surgical procedures is essential to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Any break in sterile technique should be addressed promptly to prevent any potential harm to the patient. By informing the surgeon immediately, corrective action can be taken promptly to maintain the sterility of the surgical field and minimize the risk of complications. Reporting the incident to the surgeon also allows for immediate intervention and re-education of the team member involved in the break in sterile technique.