ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.
Question 2 of 9
The Nurse asks Baste, who is being admitted in a district hospital with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, about his employment status. She knows that _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A person's compliance with diabetes management can be influenced by economic status, as financial concerns can impact access to medications, healthy food, and healthcare. This can affect treatment adherence and overall health outcomes. Choice A is correct because addressing economic factors is important in promoting compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the relationship between economic status and compliance with diabetes management.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to T cells during the immune response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Macrophages. Macrophages are antigen-presenting cells that engulf pathogens and present their antigens to T cells, initiating an immune response. They express major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules necessary for T cell recognition. B cells also present antigens but primarily to B cells for antibody production. NK cells are involved in killing infected cells, not antigen presentation. Eosinophils are mainly involved in allergic responses and defense against parasites, not antigen presentation.
Question 4 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute delirium with agitation and hallucinations. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's delirium?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Implement environmental modifications to promote sleep hygiene. Delirium is often triggered by environmental factors like noise, light, and disruption of sleep. By optimizing the environment for rest and minimizing stimuli, the patient's delirium can improve. This approach focuses on addressing the root cause rather than just managing symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because antipsychotic medications can worsen delirium and are not recommended as first-line treatment. Choice C is not the priority as ruling out focal deficits may be important but does not directly address the delirium. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines can exacerbate delirium and are not recommended due to their potential to worsen cognitive function.
Question 5 of 9
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
Question 6 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with intensely pruritic, linear burrows on the web spaces of the hands and wrists. The patient reports a history of close contact with an individual diagnosed with a similar condition. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Scabies. This presentation is classic for scabies infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The intensely pruritic linear burrows are pathognomonic. Close contact with an individual with scabies increases the likelihood of transmission. The other choices, B: Pediculosis, C: Tinea corporis, and D: Contact dermatitis, do not typically present with linear burrows on the hands and wrists. Pediculosis presents with lice infestation, Tinea corporis with circular lesions, and contact dermatitis with erythema and edema.
Question 8 of 9
When a nurse supports the welfare of the patient in relation to health, safety and personal rights, the ethical principle followed is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: advocacy. Advocacy involves actively supporting and promoting the welfare and rights of the patient. Nurses advocate for their patients by ensuring their health, safety, and personal rights are upheld. This ethical principle goes beyond just fulfilling responsibilities or being accountable for one's actions. Responsibility (A) focuses on duties and tasks, accountability (B) is about being answerable for one's actions, and confidentiality (C) pertains to maintaining patient privacy. In this context, advocacy is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses actively working to protect and promote the best interests of the patient.
Question 9 of 9
A surgeon accidentally cuts his patient's bladder while attempting to remove his appendix. The surgeon could be guilty of _________
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Malpractice. Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to perform duties according to accepted standards of practice. In this scenario, the surgeon's act of cutting the patient's bladder during an appendectomy could be considered a breach of duty and failure to provide the expected standard of care, which falls under malpractice. Battery (A) involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, but in this case, it was more than just a lack of care. Tort (D) refers to a civil wrong that causes harm, but malpractice is a specific type of tort related to professional negligence.