The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?

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ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, often causes sexual side effects like delayed ejaculation-common, per patient data-but depression treatment outweighs this for now. Switching is an option, not immediate. Suicide risk from stopping is possible but not assumed. It rarely resolves alone-management varies. Prioritizing depression balances care, per guidelines.

Question 2 of 5

A 48-year-old woman with obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to her primary care physician for evaluation. She states that her symptoms have worsened during the last 6 months and desires treatment. She has begun on sertraline. Which of the following precautions must be exercised by the physician?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, risks suicidal tendencies , especially early in treatment for OCD. Hepatic carcinoma , volume overload , and antibiotic potentiation aren't concerns. FDA warnings highlight this risk, necessitating monitoring in this worsening case.

Question 3 of 5

Action of anticholinergic drugs:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic drug that antagonizes the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. By blocking the parasympathetic nervous system, atropine produces various effects including decreased salivation, increased heart rate, bronchodilation, and mydriasis (pupillary dilation). These properties make atropine useful in treating conditions such as bradycardia, poisoning with certain toxins, and for dilation of the pupil during eye exams.

Question 4 of 5

When administering the anticoagulant drug Warfarin, what is one of the two lab tests you should monitor to distinguish the effectiveness of the drug?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When administering the anticoagulant drug Warfarin, one of the two lab tests you should monitor to distinguish the effectiveness of the drug is the International Normalized Ratio (INR). INR measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effects of Warfarin therapy. The target INR range for patients on Warfarin therapy varies depending on the indication for treatment, but in general, a higher INR indicates that the blood is taking longer to clot, which means the Warfarin is working effectively to prevent blood clots. Regular monitoring of the INR levels is essential to ensure that patients are receiving an appropriate dose of Warfarin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

Question 5 of 5

If you are treating a patient that has renal failure, what type of pain medications should you avoid?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In patients with renal failure, NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) should be avoided as they can further impair kidney function and potentially cause kidney damage. NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury and worsen existing renal conditions by affecting prostaglandin synthesis in the kidneys, leading to decreased renal blood flow. It is essential to choose pain medications that do not rely on the kidneys for metabolism or excretion, such as nonopioid analgesics or certain types of opioids that are safe for use in renal impairment. It is advisable to consult with a healthcare provider for proper pain management in patients with renal failure.

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