ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, often causes sexual side effects like delayed ejaculation-common, per patient data-but depression treatment outweighs this for now. Switching is an option, not immediate. Suicide risk from stopping is possible but not assumed. It rarely resolves alone-management varies. Prioritizing depression balances care, per guidelines.
Question 2 of 5
A 24-year-old man is admitted for an emergent appendectomy. While in the operating room, the anesthesiologist finds that he must use a much higher than expected anesthetic dose to anesthetize this patient. After the surgery, the patient admits to barbiturate abuse. What is the correct term for the fact that his history of barbiturate abuse led to a greater anesthetic requirement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Barbiturate abuse increases anesthetic need due to cross-tolerance . Chronic use induces enzymes and receptor changes, reducing anesthetic efficacy. Addiction , dependence , and cross-dependence don't explain dosing. Tolerance (E) is drug-specific. Cross-tolerance fits this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to her primary care physician for evaluation. She states that her symptoms have worsened during the last 6 months and desires treatment. She has begun on sertraline. Which of the following precautions must be exercised by the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, risks suicidal tendencies , especially early in treatment for OCD. Hepatic carcinoma , volume overload , and antibiotic potentiation aren't concerns. FDA warnings highlight this risk, necessitating monitoring in this worsening case.
Question 4 of 5
Which one of the following CNS receptors is directly coupled to an ion channel so that the effects of its activation do not involve second messenger systems?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nicotinic acetylcholine (N ACh) receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, directly opening to allow sodium and potassium flux upon acetylcholine binding, producing rapid effects without second messengers—key in neuromuscular transmission. Alpha-adrenergic (a NE) receptors couple to G-proteins, using second messengers like IP3 or cAMP. D2A dopamine receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase via Gi proteins, involving cAMP. Mu opioid receptors (µ) also use Gi proteins, reducing cAMP and opening potassium channels indirectly. 5HT2 serotonin receptors activate phospholipase C, generating IP3. The nicotinic receptor's direct ion channel linkage distinguishes it, enabling fast synaptic responses without the delay of intracellular signaling cascades.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics like haloperidol have anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. Urinary retention is a medical emergency if severe, risking bladder damage or infection, requiring immediate physician reporting. Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect, not anticholinergic, though urgent. Severe headache could indicate various issues but isn't a typical anticholinergic effect. Hypertension isn't directly linked to anticholinergic action (hypotension is more common). The nurse prioritizes urinary retention due to its potential for rapid complications, aligning with anticholinergic pharmacology, making choice D the most critical to report.