The physician has prescribed sertraline Zoloft for

Question 1 of 5

The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?

A. I will let your doctor know, and he will most likely change your medication.' B. This does happen, but treating your depression is a bigger priority.' C. I am concerned that you will become suicidal if you stop the medication.' D. Keep taking the medicine, as this usually goes away after a few months.'

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, often causes sexual dysfunction like delayed ejaculation due to serotonin elevation. Reporting this to the doctor allows dose adjustment or switching (e.g., to bupropion), addressing quality of life. Choice B minimizes the issue, risking noncompliance. Choice C assumes suicide risk without basis. Choice D falsely promises resolution. A advocates for the patient, ensuring tailored care, making it the best response.

Question 2 of 5

With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:

A. prednisone is a long acting glucocorticoid B. methotrexate has been shown to be beneficial in prednisone-dependent asthmatics in all studies C. cyclosporin's toxicity limits its use as an oral anti-asthmatic agent D. oral nifedipine significantly inhibits exercise-induced bronchoconstriction

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is intermediate-acting (12-36 hours), not long-acting like dexamethasone, so that's false. Methotrexate benefits some prednisone-dependent asthmatics, not all studies, making that false. Cyclosporin's toxicity (e.g., nephrotoxicity) limits its anti-asthmatic use, a true statement, despite immunosuppressive potential. Nifedipine has minimal effect on exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, unlike inhaled CCBs, so that's false. Macrolides show some benefit in asthma. Cyclosporin's limitation reflects its risk-benefit profile, restricting its practical use.

Question 3 of 5

A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

A. I can drink alcohol in moderation.' B. I need to brush and floss my teeth regularly.' C. I should take this with milk to avoid stomach upset.' D. I can stop this drug if I haven't had a seizure in a month.'

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin risks gingival hyperplasia, making oral hygiene vital'brushing and flossing prevent this, showing teaching success. Alcohol increases seizure risk and drug levels. Milk reduces absorption via calcium binding. Stopping after a month risks recurrence, as seizures require long-term control. Regular dental care mitigates a common, chronic side effect, aligning with phenytoin's long-term use and metabolism (CYP450 saturation). This statement reflects understanding of self-care, critical for adherence and complication prevention, making B the indicator of effective education.

Question 4 of 5

The mother of a 7-year-old child says to the nurse, 'My child is distractible in school, cannot complete assignments on time, and interrupts other children while they are speaking. What do you think?' What is the best response by the nurse?

A. This sounds like your child is depressed; depression looks different in children and is very serious' B. This sounds like bipolar disorder; you might want to have your child tested by a child psychiatrist' C. This could be attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); you might want to have your child tested' D. This sounds like typical 7-year-old behaviors to me; if they do not resolve, have your child tested'

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Distractibility, incomplete tasks, and interrupting suggest ADHD-hyperactivity/impulsivity, per DSM-5-warranting evaluation. Depression may show withdrawal, not this. Bipolar needs mania evidence, not here. Typical 7-year-olds vary, but this exceeds norms. ADHD fits, prompting testing.

Question 5 of 5

A patient is prescribed daptomycin. Which action(s) should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

A. Monitor blood values for toxicity. B. Dilute in 50 to 100 mL of normal saline and administer intravenously over 30 minutes. C. Monitor the patient for allergic reactions such as rhabdomyolysis. D. Advise the patient to take the medication on an empty stomach, even if gastrointestinal distress occurs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Daptomycin is a lipopeptide antibiotic used to treat serious Gram-positive infections. Monitoring blood values, particularly creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is essential to detect muscle toxicity, which can lead to rhabdomyolysis. Daptomycin should be diluted in normal saline and administered over 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption and minimize adverse effects. Allergic reactions, though rare, should be monitored. Taking daptomycin on an empty stomach is not required, and gastrointestinal distress should be managed rather than ignored. Culturing the infected area before administration ensures the infection is susceptible to daptomycin.