ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The physician has diagnosed a tracheal shift in a patient. The nurse is aware that this means that the patient's trachea is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because tracheal shift due to thyroid enlargement occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges and displaces the trachea to the opposite side. This is a common clinical finding in conditions like a goiter. Other choices are incorrect because: A is incorrect as tracheal shift is not related to systole; B is incorrect as tracheal shift is typically caused by a mass pushing the trachea; C is incorrect as pleural adhesions don't typically cause tracheal shift.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old patient with head injuries from a recent motor vehicle accident. Which of the following statements indicates the most important reason for assessing for any drainage from the canal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. 2. Basal skull fractures can cause cerebrospinal fluid leakage, leading to clear watery drainage. 3. Blood in the ear canal can suggest a temporal bone fracture. 4. Assessing for drainage helps identify potential serious head injuries. Summary: A. Incorrect. Purulent drainage indicates infection, not related to head injuries. C. Incorrect. Increased cerumen is not the priority in assessing head injuries. D. Incorrect. Foreign bodies in the canal are not the primary concern in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis
Question 4 of 9
When examining children with Down's syndrome (trisomy 21), the nurse looks for the possible presence of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Down's syndrome is associated with characteristic physical features. Step 2: One common physical feature is a protruding tongue due to a small oral cavity. Step 3: This is known as macroglossia and is seen in individuals with Down's syndrome. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse looks for a protruding thin tongue in children with Down's syndrome. Summary: A is incorrect because ear dysplasia is not a common feature. B is incorrect as a long, thin neck is not a typical characteristic. D is incorrect because a narrow and raised nasal bridge is not a key feature of Down's syndrome.
Question 5 of 9
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 6 of 9
When a light is directed across the iris of the eye from the temporal side, the examiner is assessing for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the presence of shadows, which may indicate glaucoma. When a light is directed across the iris from the temporal side, it helps in evaluating the presence of shadows in the anterior chamber angle, which can suggest a narrow or closed angle glaucoma. This technique is known as transillumination test and is important in detecting potential glaucoma cases. A: Drainage from dacryocystitis is incorrect as it is typically assessed by pressing on the lacrimal sac area to observe for discharge. B: Conjunctivitis over the iris is incorrect as conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, not the iris. D: A scattered light reflex indicative of cataracts is incorrect as cataracts cause clouding of the lens, not scattering of light across the iris.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys. One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT). Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one pinch of smokeless tobacco (SLT) in the mouth for 30 minutes can indeed deliver a similar amount of nicotine as smoking one cigarette. This is because the nicotine in SLT is absorbed through the oral mucosa directly into the bloodstream, providing a quick effect. This statement is accurate and reflects the pharmacokinetics of SLT use. Option B is incorrect because smoking carries a higher risk of oral cancer compared to SLT use. Option C is incorrect as pain is not always an early sign of oral cancer, and other symptoms such as non-healing sores or lumps may indicate oral cancer. Option D is incorrect as pain can sometimes be an early sign of oral cancer, especially in advanced stages.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.
Question 9 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.