ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The phenomenon in which two dugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In chemical antagonism, two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiological system but do not act at the same receptor site. This type of antagonism occurs when one drug chemically interacts with another drug to reduce its effects. The drugs involved in chemical antagonism do not compete for the same receptor site, unlike competitive antagonism where drugs compete for the same receptor site, or noncompetitive antagonism where drugs may act at different sites but still result in inhibition. Physiological antagonism involves two drugs that produce opposite effects but do not necessarily interact chemically. Potentiation refers to the increase in effect when two drugs are combined. Given the scenario described in the question, the phenomenon of two drugs producing opposite effects without acting at the same receptor site best aligns with chemical antagonism.
Question 2 of 5
Before administering a nonselective adrenergic blocker, what should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitor vital signs and assess cardiovascular status including pulse, blood pressure, and cardiac output to evaluate for possible cardiac effects. Although assessment of bowel sounds, appetite, serum albumin level, or serum sodium and potassium levels may be important to patient care, they are not related to administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocking agent. The nurse should prioritize cardiovascular assessments to ensure patient safety.
Question 3 of 5
Which is appropriate nursing care for a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) in an acute care setting? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose (A) is critical because TPN can cause hyperglycemia. Measuring intake and output (B) helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring the insertion site (D) is essential to detect infection or infiltration. Blood should never be administered through the TPN line (C) due to risk of contamination.
Question 4 of 5
An adult patient has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome p-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome p-450 system. You should monitor this patient for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Drug B, as an inducer of the cytochrome p-450 system, increases the metabolism of Drug A, leading to lower plasma concentrations and reduced therapeutic effects of Drug A. This interaction is a common concern in polypharmacy, where one drug affects the metabolism of another. Monitoring for decreased efficacy of Drug A is essential to ensure the patient receives adequate treatment. Increased adverse effects of Drug B or decreased effects of Drug B are less likely in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman who is having labor pains is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following medications should be ready in case a respiratory depression occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is the antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression and should be readily available when administering opioid analgesics during labor. It works by reversing the effects of opioids on the respiratory system, restoring normal breathing. Oxycodone, meperidine, and morphine are opioids and would exacerbate respiratory depression. Therefore, naloxone is the correct medication to have on hand.