ATI RN
Genitourinary System Diseases Questions
Question 1 of 5
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations. Summary: - Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body. - Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation. - Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly?:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly due to its ability to acquire resistance genes through plasmid exchange and mutation. This bacterium is commonly found in the gut of humans and animals, leading to frequent exposure to antibiotics. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C are less likely to develop resistance as rapidly as E. coli due to their lower frequency of exposure to antibiotics and differences in genetic makeup. Streptococcus pyogenes is susceptible to penicillin, Meningococcus has shown susceptibility to several antibiotics, and Treponema pallidum has limited exposure to antibiotics due to its unique nature as the causative agent of syphilis.
Question 3 of 5
A-50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a thiazide diuretic that reduces calcium excretion, preventing stone formation. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) do not target calcium excretion specifically. Acetazolamide (D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and not commonly used for calcium stones.
Question 4 of 5
A 55 year old man with kidney stones has been placed on a diuretic to decrease calcium excretion. However after a few weeks, he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic is he taking?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works by reducing calcium excretion and increasing uric acid levels, which can lead to gout attacks in susceptible individuals. Furosemide (choice A) is a loop diuretic that does not increase uric acid levels. Spironolactone (choice B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not affect calcium or uric acid levels significantly. Triamterene (choice D) is also a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not impact calcium or uric acid levels in the same way as hydrochlorothiazide.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH, non – peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH’s water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, indicated for managing SIADH by blocking ADH's water-sparing effects in the collecting ducts. Mannitol (A) is an osmotic diuretic used for reducing intracranial pressure, not specifically for SIADH. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema. Spironolactone (C) is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, not specifically for SIADH.