ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient was receiving haloperidol (Haldol), a dopamine antagonist. The psychiatrist changed the order to aripiprazole (Abilify), a partial dopamine antagonist. Which statement best describes the effect of the change of medication on the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aripiprazole, a partial dopamine agonist, balances receptor activity versus haloperidol's full block, reducing side effects like extrapyramidal symptoms, common in schizophrenia treatment. Compliance isn't directly tied to this switch. Efficacy or symptom reduction varies-side effect profile drives the change. Fewer side effects align with aripiprazole's design, improving tolerability.
Question 2 of 5
A 33-year-old man spends the morning outside gardening in the sun on a warm spring day. He develops a tension headache, and the only medication he has at home is aspirin. After taking two regular-sized aspirin tablets, there was an increase in his respiration rate. What is the reason for the increased respirations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin (salicylates) at standard doses (two tablets) can cause respiratory changes. Option , CO2 receptor agonism, is incorrect-salicylates don't target carotid bodies directly. Option , direct stimulation of the respiratory center, is correct-salicylates stimulate the medullary respiratory center, increasing respiration rate, a known early effect in salicylate toxicity. Option , shifting the oxygen dissociation curve, is unrelated to aspirin's action. Option , uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation, occurs in overdose, causing metabolic acidosis and compensatory hyperventilation, but not at this dose. Here, the mild increase in respiration aligns with central stimulation, not severe metabolic disruption. This reflects aspirin's pharmacological effect on brainstem respiratory control, distinct from overdose scenarios, explaining the observed hyperventilation in this otherwise healthy man.
Question 3 of 5
A 19-year-old male college student develops sore throat, chills, and fever. Instead of going to the student health service for care, he takes a few of his roommates' amoxicillin antibiotics. Over the next few hours, he develops a maculopapular rash on his palms and swelling of his lips. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amoxicillin causing rash and lip swelling suggests allergy. Penicilloic acid , a penicillin degradation product, acts as a hapten, triggering IgE-mediated reactions. DNA gyrase , RNA synthase , and telomerase are unrelated. Transferase (E) is vague. This type I hypersensitivity fits the rapid onset.
Question 4 of 5
A 58-year-old woman who is obese comes to the emergency department with diaphoresis and crushing chest pain that radiates to her left arm. The physician orders an ECG and checks her cardiac enzymes to confirm his suspicion of myocardial infarction. Because of the quick response and intervention, she survives and is ultimately discharged with a prescription for low-dose daily aspirin to inhibit platelet aggregation. Which of the following enzymes is the intended target of aspirin in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed has having 'long QT syndrome.' The patient is experiencing significant pain following a bout with shingles. What would be an appropriate drug for his pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Long QT syndrome predisposes patients to torsades de pointes, so pain management must avoid QT-prolonging drugs. Amitriptyline, a TCA, extends QT via sodium channel blockade, risking arrhythmias. Fentanyl, an opioid, has minimal QT impact and relieves severe pain but carries respiratory depression risks, less ideal for shingles' neuropathic pain. Acyclovir treats shingles' viral cause, not pain directly. Diazepam addresses anxiety, not pain. Gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, targets neuropathic pain (common in postherpetic neuralgia) by modulating calcium channels, with no significant QT prolongation, making it safe and effective here. Its efficacy in nerve pain, lack of cardiac risk, and suitability for chronic management post-shingles distinguish it as the best option.