ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Contrast dyes can cause kidney injury due to their nephrotoxic effects. 2. Serum creatinine levels are a reliable indicator of kidney function. 3. Evaluating serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure allows detection of any contrast-induced kidney injury. 4. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in early identification and intervention for renal complications. Summary: A: Incorrect. Urine output alone is not a definitive indicator of kidney injury. C: Incorrect. Renal ultrasound is not typically used for detecting contrast-induced kidney injury. D: Incorrect. Postvoid residual volume is not specific for contrast-induced kidney injury.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: inform the provider of probable visceral perforation. This is the most urgent action as sudden abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature in a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis could indicate a serious complication like visceral perforation, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Assessing peritoneal dialysate return (A) may provide some information but does not address the urgent need to address a potential visceral perforation. Checking the patient's blood sugar (B) and evaluating the patient's neurological status (C) are not priorities in this situation and do not address the potential life-threatening complication of visceral perforation.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small-cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of decreased urine output, shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes are indicative of fluid overload due to SIADH. SIADH causes excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. This results in edema, decreased urine output, and neurological symptoms. A: Adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, shock, and electrolyte abnormalities, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. B: Diabetes insipidus would present with excessive urine output and thirst, opposite of the patient's symptoms. C: Myxedema coma results from severe hypothyroidism and presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. In summary, the patient's clinical presentation aligns
Question 5 of 9
The patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio. These levels most likely indicate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio suggest kidney dysfunction. This pattern is commonly seen in acute kidney injury, like acute tubular necrosis (ATN), where the kidneys are unable to properly filter waste products. Other choices (A) increased nitrogen intake and (C) hypovolemia would not cause the specific pattern of elevated BUN and creatinine levels with a normal ratio. (D) Fluid resuscitation would actually aim to correct hypovolemia and would not directly affect the BUN and creatinine levels.
Question 6 of 9
Identify which substances in the glomerular filtrate would indicate a problem with renal function. (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of protein in the glomerular filtrate indicates a problem with renal function as healthy kidneys should not allow large molecules like proteins to pass through the filtration barrier. This could be a sign of kidney damage or dysfunction. Sodium, creatinine, and red blood cells are normally present in the filtrate and are not specific indicators of renal function issues. Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the renal tubules, creatinine is a waste product filtered by the kidneys, and a small number of red blood cells may pass through the filtration barrier under normal circumstances.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with head trauma who was admitted to the surgical intensive care unit following a motorcycle crash. What is an important assessment that will assist the nurse in early identification of an endocrine disorder commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine osmolality. In head trauma patients, the risk of developing diabetes insipidus (DI) is high due to damage to the posterior pituitary. Monitoring urine osmolality helps identify DI early, as low urine osmolality indicates impaired concentration ability. This is crucial for prompt treatment to prevent dehydration. Choices A and B are important but not specific to endocrine disorders. Choice C is relevant for respiratory assessment, not endocrine disorders.
Question 8 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Slow continuous ultrafiltration is a method used to remove excess plasma water in cases of volume overload, making choice A the correct answer. This process does not involve adding dialysate (choice C) or combining ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis (choice D). While ultrafiltration does involve the removal of fluids and solutes, it is primarily achieved through ultrafiltration rather than convection (choice B).
Question 9 of 9
An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide has begun a formal exercise program at a local gym. While exercising on the treadmill, the individual becomes pale, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a headache. The individual feels as though she is going to pass out. What is the individual’s priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates. In this scenario, the individual is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia due to the combination of glipizide (which can lower blood sugar) and exercise. The priority action is to raise blood sugar levels quickly to prevent further complications. Consuming simple carbohydrates, like glucose tablets or juice, will rapidly increase blood sugar levels. This is crucial to prevent the individual from passing out or experiencing more serious consequences. Choice A is incorrect because while hydration is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as going to the first-aid station may waste valuable time when immediate action is needed. Choice D is incorrect as taking another dose of the oral agent can further lower blood sugar levels and worsen the hypoglycemia.