ATI RN
Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient states, "Everybody picks on me. They frobitz me." The patient’s communication exhibits:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A neologism. A neologism is a made-up word or phrase that only has meaning to the individual. In this case, "frobitz" is not a known word in the English language, indicating a neologism. This suggests possible language or thought disorder. B: Loose associations involve disconnected or tangential thoughts. C: Delusional thinking involves fixed false beliefs. D: Circumstantial speech includes excessive, irrelevant detail before reaching the main point.
Question 2 of 9
The patient states, "Everybody picks on me. They frobitz me." The patient’s communication exhibits:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A neologism. A neologism is a made-up word or phrase that only has meaning to the individual. In this case, "frobitz" is not a known word in the English language, indicating a neologism. This suggests possible language or thought disorder. B: Loose associations involve disconnected or tangential thoughts. C: Delusional thinking involves fixed false beliefs. D: Circumstantial speech includes excessive, irrelevant detail before reaching the main point.
Question 3 of 9
Which intervention would qualify as primary prevention of violent behaviors in children and adolescents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because limiting exposure to violence on TV, video, and computer games falls under primary prevention by addressing risk factors before violent behaviors occur. This intervention helps reduce the likelihood of children and adolescents developing violent tendencies by minimizing their exposure to violent content that can influence their behavior. A: Forbidding the child to continue friendships with violent peers is more of a secondary prevention strategy targeting existing risk factors, not primary prevention. C: Seeking counseling for a child who has been experimenting with drugs is also a secondary prevention strategy focusing on addressing a specific risk factor, not primary prevention. D: Showing a unified approach to parenting when dealing with a violent child is a tertiary prevention strategy aimed at managing and reducing harm after the behavior has already occurred, not primary prevention.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement best explains how a mother of several children should prepare to help them cope with the loss of a dear aunt?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because each child will indeed grieve in a unique way and on their own timetable. This approach recognizes the individuality of each child's emotions and coping mechanisms. By understanding and respecting their differences, the mother can provide tailored support and comfort. Option B oversimplifies the grieving process and ignores the complexity of individual responses. Option C generalizes the stages of grief for all people and does not account for variations in how children may process loss. Option D incorrectly suggests that extreme reactions are more common in young children, which is not necessarily true as grief responses can vary widely among children.
Question 5 of 9
How can the nurse encourage an extremely shy patient to participate therapeutically in a dance activity group?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because offering to dance with the patient shows support, builds trust, and models behavior. This approach can help the shy patient feel more comfortable and encouraged to participate. Choice B focuses on the patient's past experience, which may not directly address the current issue. Choice C isolates the patient, potentially increasing feelings of shyness. Choice D involves a third party, which may not be as effective in building a direct connection with the shy patient. Overall, option A is the most effective in directly engaging and encouraging the shy patient to participate therapeutically in the dance activity group.
Question 6 of 9
Select the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: "Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance as evidenced by stating, 'Although I’d like to, I don’t join in because I don’t speak the language very well.'” Patient will:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Select and participate in one group activity per day. This outcome directly addresses the nursing diagnosis of impaired social interaction by encouraging the patient to engage in a specific social activity daily. This goal promotes social interaction, helps the patient overcome language barriers, and gradually enhances their social skills. It provides a structured approach to improve the patient's sociocultural integration. A: Show improved use of language - This choice focuses solely on language skills but does not directly address the social interaction issue. B: Demonstrate improved social skills - While this choice is related to the nursing diagnosis, it is too broad and lacks specificity compared to choice D. C: Become more independent in decision-making - This choice is not directly related to addressing impaired social interaction caused by language barriers.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation includes an IQ range of 35-49, which typically corresponds to functioning at around the level of a 6 to 9-year-old. Choice D best fits this criteria as the individual has advanced to the sixth grade level academically, indicating a level of functioning consistent with moderate mental retardation. Choices A, B, and C do not meet the criteria as they suggest a higher level of functioning and independence than what is typically associated with moderate mental retardation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient living in community housing for the elderly says, “I don’t go to the senior citizens club. They play cards and talk about the past because that’s all they can do.” The nurse analyzes these remarks to represent:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thinking associated with ageism. This is because the patient's statement reflects a negative stereotype about older adults, assuming they are limited to playing cards and reminiscing about the past. Ageism involves discrimination or prejudice based on someone's age, which can lead to stereotyping and marginalization. A: Failure to achieve developmental tasks - This choice does not directly relate to the patient's statement about ageism. B: Hypercritical behavior - The patient's statement does not indicate hypercritical behavior, but rather a biased perspective on aging. C: Paranoid thinking - The patient's statement does not demonstrate paranoid thinking, but rather a biased view of older adults based on ageist beliefs. In summary, the correct answer is D as the patient's remarks reflect ageist thinking, while the other choices do not align with the content of the patient's statement.
Question 9 of 9
Which activities should the nurse evaluate in an assessment of an older patient’s functional status? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A and C. A nurse should evaluate if the older patient can prepare nutritious meals independently, as this indicates their ability to meet basic nutritional needs and maintain independence in daily living. Additionally, assessing if the patient can perform regular, simple maintenance on their primary residence is important for gauging their ability to live safely and comfortably. Choices B and D are incorrect as financial resources and toileting abilities, while important, do not directly reflect functional status in the same way as meal preparation and home maintenance.