ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is managing a donor patient six hours prior to th e scheduled harvesting of the patient’s organs. Which assessment finding requires imme diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The patient's pH of 7.30 indicates acidosis, PaCO2 of 38 mm Hg is low, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L is also low, suggesting metabolic acidosis. This finding requires immediate action as untreated acidosis can lead to serious complications. Choice A (morning serum blood glucose of 128 mg/dL) is within normal range and does not require immediate action. Choice C (pulmonary artery temperature of 97.8°F) is a normal temperature and does not require immediate action. Choice D (central venous pressure of 8 mm Hg) is within normal range and does not require immediate action.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.