ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient receives imipramine (Tofranil) as treatment for depression. He is admitted to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of this medication. What will the priority assessment by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is cardiotoxic in overdose, causing dysrhythmias (e.g., widened QRS) due to sodium channel blockade. The priority assessment is cardiac status to detect life-threatening arrhythmias, guiding urgent interventions like sodium bicarbonate. Liver and renal effects are secondary in acute overdose. Neurological issues like seizures occur but are less immediately lethal than cardiac collapse. The nurse focuses on cardiac monitoring, aligning with toxicology priorities, making A the critical assessment.
Question 2 of 5
In severe renal failure:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A client who is receiving edrophonium chloride suddenly is complaining of abdominal cramps and the nurse observes the client is experiencing increased perspiration and salivation. The nurse makes sure the availability of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Edrophonium chloride is a medication used to diagnose myasthenia gravis, a condition characterized by muscle weakness. When a client receiving edrophonium chloride suddenly experiences symptoms like abdominal cramps, increased perspiration, and salivation, these are suggestive of cholinergic crisis, which is an overdose of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like edrophonium. Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic medication used to counteract the effects of excessive acetylcholine in the body, hence it is essential to have it readily available to manage cholinergic crisis in this client. Levodopa, methylphenidate hydrochloride, and carbamazepine are not indicated for managing cholinergic crisis.
Question 4 of 5
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina. This type of angina, also known as variant angina, typically occurs at rest and is due to coronary artery spasm, rather than the typical obstruction of blood flow seen in classic angina. The chest pain in Prinzmetal™s angina is often relieved by medications that dilate the blood vessels, such as nitroglycerin, as described by the patient. This distinguishes it from classic angina, which is typically triggered by exertion or emotional stress. Unstable angina, on the other hand, is characterized by chest pain that occurs unpredictably, even at rest and may signal an impending heart attack.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted" reflects a need for further teaching. Potassium should always be diluted before administration to prevent irritation of the veins and potential adverse effects, such as phlebitis or tissue damage. Diluting the medication helps to reduce the risk of complications, making it safer for the patient. Therefore, the correct approach is to dilute intravenous potassium before administering it to the patient.