The patient receives imipramine (Tofranil) as treatment for depression. He is admitted to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of this medication. What will the priority assessment by the nurse include?

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RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

The patient receives imipramine (Tofranil) as treatment for depression. He is admitted to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of this medication. What will the priority assessment by the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Imipramine, a TCA, in overdose risks cardiac toxicity-arrhythmias (e.g., QRS widening)-per toxicology, making heart status priority. Liver and renal function matter but are secondary-cardiac collapse kills faster. Neurological signs (e.g., seizures) follow but heart trumps. Cardiac focus saves lives, per protocol.

Question 2 of 5

A 37-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by a friend after consuming an entire month's supply of amitriptyline. She is tachycardic, drowsy, nauseous, and has a headache. Which of the following could the physician administer to help this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amitriptyline overdose (TCA) causes anticholinergic and cardiac toxicity. Bicarbonate corrects acidosis and stabilizes sodium channels, reducing arrhythmias. Dimercaprol , Methylene blue , and Vitamin K (E) are irrelevant. Naloxone treats opioids. Bicarbonate's role in TCA overdose is critical for this presentation.

Question 3 of 5

A 38-year-old man who is a chronic coffee drinker for 20 years drinks approximately seven cups of coffee per day. He suddenly decides to stop drinking coffee. Which of the following effects may he exhibit?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

Which one of the following pairs of 'drug/mechanism of action' is most accurate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lithium's mood-stabilizing effect in bipolar disorder involves inhibiting inositol monophosphatase, reducing inositol recycling and dampening overactive phosphoinositide signaling, a unique mechanism. Carbamazepine blocks sodium channels, not GABA facilitation (that's barbiturates). Ethosuximide inhibits T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, not sodium channels, to control absence seizures. Phenelzine, an MAOI, inhibits monoamine oxidase, not dopa decarboxylase (carbidopa does that). Procaine, a local anesthetic, blocks sodium channels, not T-type calcium channels. Lithium's inositol depletion is well-established, aligning with its therapeutic role and distinguishing it as the most accurate pairing here.

Question 5 of 5

The patient with schizophrenia is sitting quietly in a chair. The patient does not respond much to what is happening and has a lack of interest in the environment. How does the nurse interpret this assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Schizophrenia involves positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations) and negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, withdrawal). The patient's quiet demeanor, lack of responsiveness, and disinterest align with negative symptoms, which diminish normal behaviors like motivation or social engagement. Depression might present similarly but isn't assumed without further evidence like sadness or hopelessness. Hearing voices suggests positive symptoms, but the scenario lacks indicators like distractedness. Positive symptoms involve added behaviors (e.g., delusions), not subtraction, as seen here. The nurse interprets this based on schizophrenia's symptomology, recognizing negative symptoms as a core feature, making choice D the most accurate clinical interpretation.

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