ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is shouting and cursing the nurse, the nurse slaps the patient. The nurse would be guilty of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Battery is the intentional touching or use of force on another individual without their consent. In this scenario, the nurse's action of slapping the patient constitutes battery as it involves a deliberate physical contact without the patient's permission. This is different from assault, which involves the threat of harm, and abuse, which encompasses various forms of mistreatment. Ultimately, the nurse in this situation would be guilty of committing a battery by unlawfully striking the patient.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse specialist describe the stages of Hodgkin`s disease. Which of the following symptoms is MOST commonly an early indicator of Stage I?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In Stage I of Hodgkin's disease, the most commonly seen early symptom is usually unexplained fever and night sweats. Other common symptoms at this stage may include unexplained weight loss, itching, and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, underarms, or groin. Chest and back pains, subnormal body temperature, and swelling of extremities are not typically early indicators of Stage I Hodgkin's disease.
Question 3 of 9
The type of epidemiologic study that is used to describe a group of persons enrolled in a study who share some characteristic of interest and who are followed over a period of time to observe some health outcome is a/an:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cohort studies are types of epidemiological studies that involve a group of individuals who share a common characteristic or experience and are followed over time to observe the development of a particular health outcome. This type of study is useful in determining the incidence of a disease, identifying risk factors, and studying the natural history of a disease. Cohort studies allow researchers to investigate the relationship between exposure and outcome by following participants forward in time. It helps in establishing causality and is particularly useful for studying rare exposures or outcomes. In contrast, cross-sectional studies involve collecting data from a population at a single point in time, experimental studies involve interventions and control groups, and case-control studies involve comparing individuals with a particular health outcome (cases) to those without the outcome (controls) retrospectively.
Question 4 of 9
In her capacity to teach, the nurse describes the changes of the uterus after childbirth to return to a nonpregnant state as _____
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Involution refers to the process of the uterus returning to its nonpregnant state after childbirth. During pregnancy, the uterus undergoes significant changes and enlarges to accommodate the growing fetus. After childbirth, the uterus begins to contract, leading to a decrease in its size and a return to its pre-pregnant state. This process involves the shedding of the excess endometrial tissue and the reduction of the size of the uterine muscle fibers. It is a normal and essential process for postpartum recovery. Failure of the uterus to undergo proper involution is known as subinvolution, which can lead to complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 5 of 9
Which additional finding confirms the diagnosis that the patient has mastitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A hard mass and a reddened area on one breast are key clinical signs that confirm the diagnosis of mastitis. Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that often presents with localized redness, warmth, and swelling of the breast. The presence of a hard mass along with the other symptoms suggests inflammation and infection within the breast tissue. In contrast, the other findings such as enlarged glands in the axilla, normal temperature, and engorged breasts are not specific findings for mastitis and may be present in other conditions. Therefore, the presence of a hard mass and reddened area on one breast is the additional finding that strongly confirms the diagnosis of mastitis in this case.
Question 6 of 9
Patient was visited by the anesthesiologist and explained the anesthesia for his surgery. Which of the following type of anesthesia would you expect to be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When the anesthesiologist visits a patient to explain the anesthesia for surgery, the most likely type of anesthesia to be ordered in this scenario would be general anesthesia. General anesthesia is a state of controlled unconsciousness where the patient is completely unaware and unresponsive during the procedure. This type of anesthesia is typically used for surgeries that are more complex, lengthy, or invasive, requiring the patient to be completely still and asleep throughout the operation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. The patient reports a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus in a patient with a recent upper respiratory tract infection is highly suggestive of vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is typically caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection such as an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition presents with acute, severe, continuous vertigo without associated hearing loss. The presence of nystagmus, along with the absence of hearing loss, helps differentiate vestibular neuritis from Meniere's disease (which typically presents with episodic vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus) and acoustic neuroma (which presents with gradual onset of symptoms including unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and imbalance). Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) typically presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head movements, rather than the continuous vertigo seen in this case.
Question 8 of 9
The patient refuses to take the medication because it causes diarrhea. Nurse Parker explains the action of the drug but the patient vehemently refuses the medication. What should be the INITIAL action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when faced with a situation where a patient refuses to take medication after education and explanation is to notify the physician. The physician may need to be informed so they can reassess the medication and potentially explore alternative options or make adjustments based on the patient's concerns and preferences. It is important for medical decisions to be made in collaboration with the healthcare team to ensure the best care for the patient. Consulting the physician also helps in avoiding any potential negative outcomes resulting from the patient's refusal to take the prescribed medication. Once the physician is aware, further actions can be discussed and implemented to address the patient's concerns.
Question 9 of 9
Take home medications given to Patient Lily includes digitalis therapy which was given to patient since she was pregnant. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate with patient's drug therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digitalis therapy, commonly prescribed for heart conditions, is known for its narrow therapeutic range and potential for toxicity. In the case of Patient Lily, who has been on digitalis therapy since she was pregnant, the nurse would anticipate the continuation of the same dosage to maintain the therapeutic effects and reduce the risks of toxicity. It is essential to monitor the patient's digitalis levels regularly and adjust the dosage if necessary based on the patient's response and any changes in their clinical status. Switching to a more potent drug, changing the medication, or adding a diuretic would not be appropriate without further assessment and consultation with the healthcare provider managing Lily's digitalis therapy.