ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is receiving neuromuscular blockade. Which nursing assessment indicates a target level of paralysis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Train-of-four yields two twitches. This assessment indicates a target level of paralysis because a train-of-four ratio of 2 twitches out of 4 suggests a 50% neuromuscular blockade, which is often the goal for patients receiving paralysis for procedures or ventilation. A: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 assesses consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade. C: A Bispectral index of 60 measures depth of anesthesia, not paralysis level. D: CAM-ICU assesses delirium, not neuromuscular blockade.
Question 2 of 9
Which statement is consistent with societal views of dying in the United States?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D because the purpose of the healthcare system in the United States is primarily focused on disease prevention and symptom management. This aligns with societal views as healthcare is geared towards improving health outcomes and quality of life. Incorrect choices: A: Dying is not viewed as a failure of the system or providers, rather as a natural part of life. B: Most Americans prefer to die at home or in hospice care rather than in a hospital. C: Illnesses are not always curable, and death can result from various complex conditions beyond treatment.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who has been declared brain dead is considered a potential organ donor. In order to proceed with donation, the nurse must understand that applicable concept?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after brain death is confirmed, maintaining perfusion and oxygenation of organs is crucial to ensure their viability for donation. This process allows organs to be retrieved in optimal condition during the operation. Choice A is incorrect because a signed donor card is not a legal mandate for organ retrieval. Choice C is incorrect as the healthcare proxy's consent is typically required for organ donation. Choice D is incorrect because life support is not immediately withdrawn upon brain death confirmation; instead, organ preservation measures are initiated.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is a member of a committee to design a critical care unit in a new building. Which design trend would best be implemented to facilitate famil y-centered care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Family-centered care promotes involvement of family members in patient care. 2. A sleeper sofa in the patient's room allows family members to stay overnight, enhancing support for the patient. 3. Storage for personal belongings ensures families can have essentials close by, increasing comfort and convenience. 4. These design elements facilitate family presence, communication, and participation in care, aligning with family-centered care principles. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Having a diagnostic suite nearby is convenient but not directly related to family-centered care principles. C. A waiting room with amenities is beneficial but does not directly involve families in patient care. D. Access to a garden for meditation is helpful for relaxation but does not emphasize family involvement in care.
Question 5 of 9
The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, “When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?” The nurse should reply,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.” The rationale for this is that an arteriovenous fistula typically requires 4 to 6 weeks to mature and be ready for use. During this time, the fistula develops the necessary blood flow for efficient dialysis. Choice A is incorrect because immediate use of the fistula is not recommended as it needs time to mature. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the time needed for the fistula to heal and mature. Choice D is incorrect as the usability of the fistula is not dependent on the manufacturer but rather on the patient's individual healing process.
Question 6 of 9
A 65-year-old patient with a history of metastatic lung car cinoma has been unresponsive to chemotherapy. The medical team has determined that ther e are no additional treatments available that will prolong life or improve the quality of lifaebi ribn.c oamn/yte smt eaningful way. Despite the poor prognosis, the patient continues to receive chemotherapy and full nutrition support. This is an example of what end-of-life concept?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical futility. In this scenario, the patient's condition is terminal with no treatment options left. Continuing chemotherapy offers no benefit and may even harm the patient. Medical futility refers to interventions that are unlikely to achieve the desired outcome. B: Palliative care focuses on improving quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, which is not being addressed in this case. C: Terminal weaning involves gradually removing life-support measures, which is not happening here. D: Withdrawal of treatment would be appropriate if the treatments were no longer beneficial, but the issue here is the continued provision of futile treatment.
Question 7 of 9
To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because inflating the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation ensures it is adequately sealed but not overinflated, preventing complications like tracheal injury or pressure necrosis. Choice A lacks specificity and can lead to overinflation. Choice B may result in overinflation as the firmness of the balloon is subjective. Choice C relies on a specific pressure reading, which may vary based on factors like tube size and patient anatomy, potentially leading to under- or overinflation.
Question 8 of 9
Following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC),a bthirbe. cpohmy/tessitc ian orders the nurse to obtain a blood sample for mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO ). Which action by the nurse best ensures the obtained value is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because calibrating the system with central venous and arterial blood samples ensures accuracy of the mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) measurement. This calibration allows for comparison of the values obtained from both sources to confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is incorrect because zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis does not directly address the accuracy of the SvO2 measurement. Choice C is incorrect because ensuring patency of the catheter using normal saline pressurized at 300 mm Hg does not directly impact the accuracy of the SvO2 measurement. Choice D is incorrect because using noncompliant pressure tubing does not ensure the accuracy of the SvO2 measurement. The length of the tubing and the presence of stopcocks are not directly related to obtaining an accurate SvO2 value.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus as a blood clot can dislodge from the veins, travel to the lungs, and block blood flow. An amniotic fluid embolus (Choice A) occurs during childbirth and is rare as a cause of pulmonary embolism. A fat embolus (Choice C) typically occurs after a long bone fracture and is more likely to cause issues in the lungs. Vegetation from an infected central venous catheter (Choice D) can cause septic pulmonary embolism, but it is not as common as DVT.